N10-005 N10-005 N10-005 www.cert24.com

Exam Number/Code : N10-004

Exam Name : CompTIA Network+(2009 Edition)

Version : Demo

QUESTION 1

Which of the following can be configured to restrict specific ports and IP addresses from accessing the internal network? (Select TWO).

A. Layer 2 switch

B. MAC address filtering

C. ACLs

D. IIS server

E. Port scanner

F. Firewall

Answer: CF

QUESTION 2

Which of the following authentication solutions also provides AAA and uses TCP?

A. TACACS+

B. Kerberos

C. RADIUS

D. RAS

Answer: A

QUESTION 3

When the use of a smart card, pin number, and pass phrase is required to login to a system, which of the following types of authentication is being used?

A. Single sign on

B. PKI

C. Two factor authentication

D. Multi-factor authentication

Answer: D

QUESTION 4

Which of the following would be used to test out the security of a specific network by allowing it to receive security attacks?

A. Honeynet

B. Honeypot

C. Vulnerability scanner

D. Network based IDS

Answer: A

QUESTION 5

The protocols that use a three way handshake to transfer information can be found within which layer of the OSI model?

A. Layer 2

B. Layer 3

C. Layer 4

D. Layer 5

Answer: C

NS0-101 NS0-101 NS0-101 www.cert24.com

Posted on May 14, 2013 by admin

Exam Number/Code : NS0-101

Exam Name : NetApp Accredited Sales Professional Exam

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1
What is the definition of an RPO?

A. The acceptable amount of data lost during recovery
B. The acceptable length of time it takes to recover
C. The ability to recover from a backup
D. The acceptable length of time it takes to complete a backup

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2

A common customer response to a NetApp SQL Server solution is “I need a
Microsoft-certified solution.” What is the most appropriate response to
this statement?

A. NetApp has a strong presence on the Windows Hardware Compatibility site and is a Microsoft Gold Partner.
B. NetApp has several thousand customers running databases on NetApp storage systems.
C. NetApp supports multiple databases and Microsoft SQL server is one of those.
D. NetApp has experience in large-scale enterprise deployments, operating in more than 5,000 data centers worldwide.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3

Which three benefits is a customer likely to derive when using the
NetApp SnapManager for Exchange solution in their messaging environment?
(Choose three.)

A. Virus-free email andattachments
B. Recovery in minutes
C. Classified and categorized email
D. Simplified management with automated backups
E. Quicker and easier storage provisioning

Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION NO: 4
NetApp SnapManager software enables efficient backups to be completed in _____.

A. Seconds
B. Minutes
C. Hours
D. Days

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5

Most Oracle customers require large development environments and they
are concerned about the amount of storage required to support them.
Which statement defines the NetApp value proposition for this situation?

A.
NetApp FlexClone provides the ability to almost instantly create
development environments without using additional storage capacity.
B. The NetApp Unified Storage approach allows customers to use both primary and secondary storage for development.
C. The NetApp scalable storage architecture allows customers to dynamically grow database environments at their own pace.
D. NetApp SnapVault uses less storage capacity when creating a development environment.

Answer: A

NS0-154 NS0-154 NS0-154 www.cert24.com

Posted on May 14, 2013 by admin

Exam Number/Code : NS0-154

Exam Name : Data ONTAP 8.0 7-Mode Administrator

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

Which three items are NFS resources for export? (Choose three.)

A. aggregate

B. directory/qtree

C. file

D. subnet

E. volume

Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION NO: 2

Data ONTAP 8.0 7-Mode supports SMB 2.0 in Windows Vista and Windows Server 2008.

A. True

B. False

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

In a tape environment after a SnapRestore reversion of a volume, incremental backup and restore

operations on the file or volume cannot rely on the timestamps to determine what data needs to be

backed up or restored. Which course of action ensures correct incremental backups?

A. Perform a base-level backup of the volume after you restore it.

B. Reboot the storage system to reset timestamps back to their original times before the reversion.

C. Take a new snapshot of the volume to create new base-level timestamps for the incremental

backup.

D. Take a new snapshot of the volume to create new base-level timestamps for the incremental

backup, and then perform a base-level backup of the volume after you restore it.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4

Which three /etc/snapmirror.conf entries will support synchronous or semi-synchronous

SnapMirror? (Choose three.)

A. FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol – sync

B. FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol – 0-55/5 * * *

C. FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol outstanding=3s sync

D. FilerA:source_vol FilerB:destination_vol visibility_interval=1hr, outstanding=3ms, cksum=crc32 sync

Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 5

Which changes the NDMP password on the Open System SnapVault agent?

A. password

B. password

C. svpasswd

D. svpassword

Answer: D

NS0-510 NS0-510 NS0-510 www.cert24.com

Posted on May 14, 2013 by admin

Exam Number/Code : NS0-510

Exam Name: NCIE – Backup and Recovery Implementation Engineer Exam

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

Which two technologies serve as the basis for SnapVault-based backups? (Choose two.)

A. QSM

B. VSM

C. SyncMirror

D. Snapshot

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 2

Which NetApp backup and recovery solution is best for backing up remote office heterogeneous data storage?

A. Snapshot copies

B. SnapManager

C. SnapVault

D. Open System SnapVault

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3

From which three platforms does Open Systems SnapVault support backup and restore? (Choose three.)

A. IBM AIX

B. SunOS

C. HP HP-UX

D. Linux

E. Windows NT, Windows 2000, and Windows Server 2003

F. SGI IRIX

Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 4

What are three components of an Open Systems SnapVault (OSSV) installation? (Choose three.)

A. Primary System

B. Secondary System

C. OSSV agent installed on the primary system

D. OSSV agent installed on the secondary system

E. NetApp primary system

Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION NO: 5

The NearStore VTL provides a masking function to control Host access to virtual devices.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

OG0-093 OG0-093 OG0-093 www.cert24.com

Posted on May 14, 2013 by admin

Exam Number/Code : OG0-093

Exam Name : TOGAF 9 Combined Part 1 and Part 2

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

Which of the following TOGAF components was created to enable architects to design

architectures addressing Boundaryless Information Flow?

A. The Architecture Repository

B. The Enterprise Continuum

C. The Integrated Information Infrastructure Model

D. The TOGAF Technical Reference Model

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2

Which of the following best describes the TOGAF Technical Reference Model?

A. It is a detailed data model that can be tailored to specific industries

B. It is an example of a Common Systems Architecture

C. It is a fundamental architecture upon which more specific architectures can be based

D. It is a model of application components and application services software, including brokering applications

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3

Which one of the following statements about the structure of the TOGAF 9 document is true?

A. Part I, the Enterprise Continuum, describes a model for structuring a virtual repository

B. Part II, the Architecture Development Method, describes the definitions of terms used in

TOGAF, and the changes between versions of TOGAF

C. Part III, Tools and Support, describes a collection of guidelines and techniques used in the other parts of TOGAF

D. Part VI, TOGAF Reference Models, includes a model for release management of the TOGAF specification

E. Part VII, the Architecture Capability Framework, describes processes and skills to establish an enterprise function

Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 4

Which phase of the ADM ensures that implementation projects conform to the defined

architecture?

A. Requirements Management

B. Phase D

C. Phase F

D. Phase G

E. Phase H

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5

Complete the sentence. The Requirements Management Phase _____________________.

A. addresses and resolves requirements between ADM phases

B. is a central process that prioritizes requirements for all ADM phases

C. is used to dispose of resolved requirements for all ADM phases

D. generates new requirements and passes them to all ADM phases

E. stores requirements and manages their flow into relevant ADM phases

Answer: E

P_ADM_SEC_70 P_ADM_SEC_70 P_ADM_SEC_70 www.cert24.com

P_ADM_SEC_70 P_ADM_SEC_70 P_ADM_SEC_70 www.cert24.com

Posted on May 14, 2013 by admin

Exam Number/Code : P_ADM_SEC_70

Exam Name : SAP Certified Technology Professional – Security with SAP NetWeaver 7.0

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

Which of the following statements regarding SSO and SAP Logon Tickets are true?

Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Users have the same user ID and password in all of the systems they access using

SAP Logon Tickets.

B. The end users’ Web browsers accept cookies (SAP GUI not in use).

C. The clocks for the accepting systems are synchronized with the ticket-issuing system.

D. The SSO ticket is issued after successful login to the SAP NetWeaver AS Java.

E. The cookie is stored in the temporary folder of the local GUI.

Answer: B,C,D

P_ADM_SEC_70 P_ADM_SEC_70 P_ADM_SEC_70 www.cert24.com

QUESTION NO: 2

Which of the following authentication mechanisms are available for SAP NetWeaver AS Java?

Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Security session IDs for Single Sign-On between applications

B. SAP Logon Tickets for Single Sign-On

C. SAML Assertions for Single Sign-On

D. Web Dynpro for Single Sign-On

E. Kerberos Authentication for Single Sign-On

Answer: A,B,C

P_ADM_SEC_70 P_ADM_SEC_70 P_ADM_SEC_70 www.cert24.com

QUESTION NO: 3

Which of the following authentication mechanisms is not accepted by SAP NetWeaver Portal 7.0?

A. SAML Assertions

B. User ID / password

C. X.509 client certificates

D. SNC based authentication

E. Web Access Management (WAM) products

Answer: D

P_ADM_SEC_70 P_ADM_SEC_70 P_ADM_SEC_70 www.cert24.com

QUESTION NO: 4

A customer uses an LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol ) enabled directory server. To

simplify the administration of SAP users, Central User Administration (CUA) was introduced. Now

there are plans to synchronize the LDAP enabled directory server with the CUA. Which of the

following statements are true?

Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. The SAP user field: BNAME is already a standard for most of the LDAP enabled directory

server. Therefore the field mappings can be easily customized.

B. The synchronization of fields can be controlled via a mapping transaction in SAP ABAP.

C. A prerequisite for the communication between the CUA and the LDAP enabled directory server

is to open the LDAP(s) port in the firewall environment, if a firewall is used.

D. The communication between LDAP and the CUA is based on PI 7.1. Therefore, SAP specific PI

adapter ports must be open in the firewall environment.

E. A SAPROUTER must be used to establish the proper connection between the SAP CUA and

the LDAP provider.

Answer: B,C

P_ADM_SEC_70 P_ADM_SEC_70 P_ADM_SEC_70 www.cert24.com

QUESTION NO: 5

Which of the following statements regarding load balancers are true?

Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. With a reverse proxy, you can route incoming requests to different services based on the URL

path.

B. The SAP Web Dispatcher is a full-fledged reverse proxy.

C. The SAP Web Dispatcher uses SAP Logon Groups in Enterprise Portal scenarios.

D. You can administer the SAP Web Dispatcher using transaction: WEBDISP.

E. You can combine the SAP Web Dispatcher and web switches in the demilitarized zone (DMZ).

Answer: A,E

P_ADM_SEC_70 P_ADM_SEC_70 P_ADM_SEC_70 www.cert24.com

P_SD_64 P_SD_64 P_SD_64 www.cert24.com

Posted on May 14, 2013 by admin

Exam Number/Code : P_SD_64

Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Professional – Order Fulfillment with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

Your customer has added fields to the sales order item table. These should be included into Sales Information System (SIS) and SAP BW reports. How do you ensure data accuracy before activating the respective DataSource?

A. Prevent document updates

B. Lock setup table

C. Delete BW data

D. Deactivate RFC connections

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2

SAP credit management allows you to use predefined analyses in the SAP BW.

What is a key benefit of this strategic reporting?

A. Automatic handling of the order to cash process in managing the credit limit.

B. Monitoring credit risks and analysis of customer payment and order behavior.

C. Immediate analysis of customers to trigger alerts in the invoicing process.

D. Monitoring of delivery processes to reduce the risk of supplying a bankrupt customer.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

A customer is still using the Logistic Information System (LIS) but considers introducing SAP BW.

After analyzing the reports, what would be a reason to keep LIS for some of the reports?

A. The BW reports are unable to handle more than twelve dimensions.

B. These LIS reports already contain interactive visual analytical views.

C. The BW is unable to handle the required authorization concept.

D. The posting of data to LIS is event controlled and allows real-time reporting.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4

Sales documents are extracted from SAP ERP to SAP BW using the Logistics Cockpit.

How do you ensure that only changed documents are extracted?

A. Implement a User Exit.

B. Activate the supplied Business Add-In.

C. This requirement is met by standard functionality.

D. Reduce the frequency of extracts for sales, billing, and delivery documents.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 5

How do you characterize the principle of the availability check?

A. First Come – First Served

B. Last In – First Out

C. First In – First Out

D. First Expired – First Out

Answer: A

PK0-003 PK0-003 PK0-003 www.cert24.com

Posted on May 14, 2013 by admin

Exam Number/Code : PK0-003

Exam Name : Project+ (2009)

Version : Demo

QUESTION 1

Which of the following are process groups in the project life cycle? (Select THREE).

A. Accepting

B. Mitigating

C. Avoiding

D. Initiating

E. Closing

F. Planning

Answer: DEF

QUESTION 2

A project team is comfortable working as a group and has accepted all the project ground rules. They support each other to reach the project goals. Which of the following stages of team development is the project team demonstrating?

A. Storming

B. Performing

C. Conforming

D. Forming

Answer: B

QUESTION 3

A project manager is informed that material expenditures will increase. Which of the following documents should be referenced to address this increase?

A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

B. Cost management plan

C. Approved project charter

D. Project scope document

Answer: B

QUESTION 4

The project charter is an output of which of the following project phases?

A. Initiation

B. Planning

C. Execution

D. Closing

Answer: A

QUESTION 5

All of the following are considered part of the risk management plan EXCEPT the risk:

A. register.

B. matrix.

C. assessment.

D. baseline.

Answer: D

PRINCE2 PRINCE2 PRINCE2 www.cert24.com

Posted on May 14, 2013 by admin

Exam Number/Code : PRINCE2

Exam Name : PRINCE2 Foundation

Version : Demo

QUESTION 1

In what product is used to define the information that justifies the setting up,

continuation or termination of the project?

A. Project Initiation Document

B. Business Case

C. End Stage Approval

D. Project Brief

Answer: B

QUESTION 2

Which product keeps track of Requests For Change?

A. Request Log

B. Daily Log

C. Quality Log

D. Issue Log

Answer: D

QUESTION 3

What provision in Planning can be made for implementing Requests for Change?

A. Project and stage tolerances

B. Contingency plans

C. A Change Budget

D. Adding a contingency margin to estimates

Answer: C

QUESTION 4

FilL in the missing phrase from” a project is a management environment that is created for the purpose of delivering one or more business products according to……”

A. TheCustomer’sNeds

B. An Agreed Contract

C. The Project Plan

D. A specified Business Case

Answer: D

QUESTION 5

In what sequence would the (a) Project Initiation Document, (b) the Project Mandate and (c) the Project Brief appear in a project?

A. a, b, c

B. b, c, a

C. c, a, b

D. c, b, a

Answer: B