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QUESTION 2

A stripe set of maximum size is to be configured using two physical disks. One disk has 150GB andthe other has 250GB in unallocated space. Which of the following will be the size of the stripe set?

150GB

300GB

400GB

500GB

Answer: B

QUESTION 3

A technician has a current baseline and is told to install additional memory and a faster NIC card. At which point in time should the next baseline be run?

After the memory is installed

Before the upgrade is performed

After the NIC is installed

After the upgrades are performed

Answer: D

QUESTION 4

Users report that they are unable to connect to a server. An administrator confirms that it isunreachable across the network. Other administrators have been working in the server room throughout the day. Which of the following is the NEXT step the administrator should take?

Verify the configuration of the connected port on the network switch.

Reboot the server.

Install a new NIC on the server.

Verify that network cables are connected.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5

A company utilizes the GFS backup standard. Which of the following describes this backup method?

Greatest, Final, Sequential

Full, Partial, Incremental

Monthly, Weekly, Daily

Full, Differential, Incremental

Answer: C

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Posted on May 14, 2013 by admin

Exam Number/Code : SPS-200

Exam Name : IBMSPSSMPRO: IBM SPSS Modeler Professional

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

Which key items must be identified before a data mining project is started? (Select all that apply)

A. A business problem or question

B. Data quality problem

C. Available data

D. Available expertise on the data and business

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 2

Given the following Output Table to create a select node which includes vehicles from both groups A and B, click on A and on B (as shown) and select from the menu.

A. Generate … Select Node (“Or”)

B. Generate … Select Node (“And”)

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

Which nodes are best suited for revealing relationship between categorical (nominal, ordinal) fields? (Select all that apply)

A. Means node

B. Matrix node

C. Distribution node

D. Table node

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 4

In two step node shown below, what does standardize numeric fields mean?

A. Eliminate outliers to improve results.

B. Transform the numeric fields to a scale with a mean of zero and variance of one.

C. Limit the number of created clusters.

D. Use only the numeric fields scale.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5

Which statement is correct regarding the sample node dialogue shown below?

A. It will select every 60th record from the data.

B. It will randomly select exactly 60% of all the record.

C. It will select approximately 60% of the records. This is, each record will have a 605 probability of being selected.

D. It will always draw the same 60% of records each time this sample node is run.

Answer: C

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SPS-201 SPS-201 SPS-201 www.cert24.com

Posted on May 14, 2013 by admin

Exam Number/Code : SPS-201

Exam Name : IBMSPSSMBPDA: IBM SPSS Modeler Business Partner Data Analyst Associate

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

Which fields are created by this Derive dialog?

A. Three fields representing the difference between Travel-1 and each of other Travel fields.

B. No operation will be performed because the express is invalid.

C. Four fields representing the difference in weeks between AcctEst and each of the travel fields.

D. A field representing the difference between AcctEst and the global @ FIELD value.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2

A prison system has historical data on prison inmates and wants to find what factors are related to recidivism (return to prison). What type of model would be used?

A. Segmentation model

B. Classification model

C. Association model

D. Anomaly model

Answer: B

Explanation: A classification model is tested by applying it to test data with known target values and comparing the predicted values with the known values.

The test data must be compatible with the data used to build the model and must be prepared in the same way that the build data was prepared. Typically the build data and test data come from the same historical data set. A percentage of the records is used to build the model; the remaining

records are used to test the model.

Test metrics are used to assess how accurately the model predicts the known values. If the model performs well and meets the business requirements, it can then be applied to new data to predict the future.

QUESTION NO: 3

Which node is used to read data from a comma delimited text file?

A. Var. File

B. Data Collection

C. Fixed File

D. Statistics File

Answer: A

Reference:ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/analytics/spss/documentation/modeler/14.2/en/SourceProcessOutputNodes.pdf- p.18

QUESTION NO: 4

The optional binning method in the Binning node uses a Supervisor field to determine the binning cut points.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

Reference:ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/analytics/spss/documentation/modeler/14.2/en/SourceProcessOutputNodes.pdf

QUESTION NO: 5

Which node can be used to easily generate a field that divides the data into subsamples for the training and testing stages of modeling?

A. Sample

B. Filler

C. Balance

D. Partition

Answer: D

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Reference:ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/analytics/spss/documentation/modeler/14.2/en/SourceProcessOutputNodes.pdf- p.176.

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Posted on May 14, 2013 by admin

Exam Number/Code : ST0-12X

Exam Name : Veritas Cluster Server 5 for Unix(STS)

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

Two applications must either be online on the same system of a cluster or offline on the same system of a cluster. Which Location of Dependency supports this behavior?

A. global

B. local

C. hard

D. Remote

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2

A dependent service group can be brought online on SystemA only if an independent service group is online in the same Veritas Cluster Server cluster. If the independent service group faults, the dependent service group is taken offline. After the independent service group successfully fails over, Veritas Cluster Server will bring the dependent service group online. Which type of service group dependency does this describe?

A. online global firm

B. online local soft

C. offline local soft

D. offline global hard

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3

You have a two-system cluster with a production application on one system and a test application on another. The test and production applications cannot run on the same system at the same time.

If the production application needs to fail over, the test application must be shut down first. Which category of service group dependency supports this behavior?

A. offline

B. global

C. local

D. Online

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4

You are running a Veritas Cluster Server cluster that is replicating to a remote site. Your DBA creates a new volume for additional table space. How could this affect your disaster recovery?

A. The amount oftablespace replicated may now exceed the licensed amount.

B. The additional table space may not be formatted for replication.

C. The number of volumes replicated may now exceed the licensed amount.

D. The volume may not be added to the replicated volume group.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5

What is the Veritas Storage Foundation feature that allows you to easily get a static copy of replicated data at the secondary site?

A. Snapshots

B. FastResync

C. Data Change Maps

D. Global Cluster Option

Answer: A

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Posted on May 14, 2013 by admin

Exam Number/Code : ST0-91X

Exam Name : Symantec NetBackup 7.0 for UNIX(STS)

Version : Demo

QUESTION 1

A company has just expanded the Symantec NetBackup 7.0 environment by adding an additional media server. What is the fastest way to update several hundred Symantec NetBackup clients with the new media server information?

A. run the update_all_clients script

B. run the add_media_server_on_clients script

C. specify the new media server in the Backup, Archive, and Restore interface

D. specify the new media server in the client properties

Answer: B

QUESTION 2

A tape library had the robot firmware upgraded and now the robot is reading the barcodes with additional characters. What can be set so that Symantec NetBackup 7.0 uses the same characters as before the firmware upgrade occurred?

A. Media ID generation

B. Media ID display

C. media type mapping

D. barcode rules

Answer: A

QUESTION 3

Which two media status designations are excluded in the count against maximum number of partially full media? (Select two.)

A. Frozen

B. Imported

C. Active

D. Available

E. Inactive

Answer: AB

QUESTION 4

Five media servers are configured in a storage unit group and media server load balancing is configured. There are 20 backups currently running from ten clients across the LAN. A new backup is started. What is the first criteria Symantec NetBackup 7.0 uses to determine which media server to use for the backup?

A. server rank, based on the Device Management Service

B. the media server that has the most blank tapes assigned

C. server rank, based on the media server performance

D. the media server that has the most free disk space

Answer: C

QUESTION 5

Some UNIX clients are being backed up using the policy type Standard using the directive ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES. The amount of data being backed up per client in each backup session is much larger than the data available on each client. Which change should the administrator make to avoid the local server data from being backed up repetitively?

A. disable the attribute “Cross mount points”

B. disable the attribute “Follow NFS”

C. add the following entry to the file list “UNSET_ALL”

D. disable the attribute “Collect true image restore information with move detection”

Answer: A

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ST0-099 ST0-099 ST0-099 www.cert24.com

Posted on May 14, 2013 by admin

Exam Number/Code : ST0-099

Exam Name : Symantec Enterprise Vault 9.0(STS)

Version : Demo

QUESTION 1

What is the minimum version of the .NET framework required on the Enterprise Vault Server for Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange?

A. .NET 4.0

B. .NET 3.5 SP1

C. .NET 1.1 and 2.0

D. .NET 2.0 and 3.0 SP2

Answer: B

QUESTION 2

Which feature delegation must be set to Read/Write in Internet Information Services (IIS 7.0) before installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Web Access (OWA) Extensions?

A. .NET Trust Levels

B. .NET Roles

C. Failed Request Tracing Rules

D. IPv4 Address and Domain Restrictions

Answer: D

QUESTION 3

A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server environment. In order to perform a point-in-time recovery of the database, what must be backed up daily?

A. the EnterpriseVaultDirectory SQL database

B. the SQL transaction logs

C. the SQL databases

D. the EnterpriseVaultAuditing SQL database

Answer: B

QUESTION 4

A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server environment. The administrator has yet to run a backup of the vault store partition. The

administrator has Safety Copy enabled for the Vault Store. Given that the administrator has already performed some mailbox archiving, what should occur after running the backup for the first time and clearing the archive bit?

A. The safety copies are removed from the Exchange store.

B. The safety copies are removed from the storage queues.

C. The safety copies are flagged for removal for the next Storage Expiry.

D. The safety copies are flagged for removal when the services are restarted.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5

A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server environment. On which context menu in the Vault Admin Console does the administrator set and clear the vault store backup mode?

A. the Enterprise Vault database

B. the Enterprise Vault services

C. the Enterprise Vault server

D. the Enterprise Vault site

Answer: D

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ST0-130 ST0-130 ST0-130 www.cert24.com

Posted on May 14, 2013 by admin

Exam Number/Code: ST0-130

Exam Name: Symantec Management Platform 7.1 Technical Assessment

Version: Demo

QUESTION 1

Why would an administrator want to save a report as a web part?

A. to save the results for later reference

B. to use in a resource target

C. to use in a portal page

D. to be able to e-mail the results

Answer: C

QUESTION 2

An administrator has joined a computer to a domain managed by Microsoft Active Directory. Which two items must the administrator enable to automate the installation of the Altiris Agent on this computer? (Select two.)

A. Altiris Agent for Windows – Install policy

B. Windows Computers with no Altiris Agent installed filter

C. Microsoft Active Directory import rule

D. Windows Computers with no Altiris Agent installed target

E. Scheduled Push to Computers policy

Answer: CE

QUESTION 3

What is the first point of contact for the Altiris Agent?

A. Notification Server

B. Symantec Management Console

C. Package Service

D. Task Service

Answer: A

QUESTION 4

Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?

A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to the Altiris Agent.

B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification Server.

C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.

D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5

Which component enables users to view data from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?

A. Log Viewer

B. Reports

C. Notification Server

D. Software Management Framework

Answer: B

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ST0-141 ST0-141 ST0-141 www.cert24.com

Posted on May 14, 2013 by admin

Exam Number/Code : ST0-141

Exam Name : Symantec Backup Exec 2012 Technical Assessment

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

Which Symantec Backup Exec 2012 default global scheduling option allows jobs to be cancelled without manual intervention?

A. job auto cancel after ‘x’ hours after its scheduled start time

B. kill the job if it is still running ‘x’ hours after its scheduled start time

C. terminate the job if it is still running ‘x’ hours if no data has incremented

D. cancel the job if it is still running ‘x’ hours after its scheduled start time

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2

In Symantec Backup Exec 2012, scheduled convert to virtual jobs can be configured to support which two sources? (Select two.)

A. all differential backups

B. all full backups

C. most recent snap

D. last incremental with changed block tracking enabled

E. most recent full backup

Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 3

Where are the Symantec Backup Exec Job Log files stored by default?

A. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec

B. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Data

C. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Logs

D. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Log

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4

For GRT operations, in which two instances must the default path for the TEMP directory specified in “Symantec Backup Exec 2012 > Configuration and settings > Backup Exec Settings > Granular Recovery Technology” be modified? (Select two.)

A. when the default path is the system volume

B. when the default path is a mapped drive letter

C. when the default path is NTFS

D. when the default path is FAT32

E. when the default path contains the Windows page file

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 5

A backup job failed with an access denied error message. Which option in the backup job property can be used to set the correct permissions?

A. verify credentials

B. user account credentials

C. validate credentials

D. test/edit credentials

Answer: D

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SY0-301 SY0-301 SY0-301 www.cert24.com

Posted on May 14, 2013 by admin

Exam Number/Code : SY0-301

Exam Name : Security+ Certification Exam 2011 version

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

Actively monitoring data streams in search of malicious code or behavior is an example of:

A. load balancing.

B. an Internet proxy.

C. URL filtering.

D. content inspection.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2

Which of the following network devices would MOST likely be used to detect but not react to suspicious behavior on the network?

A. Firewall

B. NIDS

C. NIPS

D. HIDS

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

The security administrator is getting reports from users that they are accessing certain websites and are unable to download anything off of those sites. The security administrator is also receiving several alarms from the IDS about suspicious traffic on the network. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A. NIPS is blocking activities from those specific websites.

B. NIDS is blocking activities from those specific websites.

C. The firewall is blocking web activity.

D. The router is denying all traffic from those sites.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4

Which of the following tools provides the ability to determine if an application is transmitting a password in clear-text?

A. Protocol analyzer

B. Port scanner

C. Vulnerability scanner

D. Honeypot

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5

Which of the following can a security administrator implement to help identify smurf attacks?

A. Load balancer

B. Spam filters

C. NIDS

D. Firewall

Answer: C

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TE0-123 latest microsoft training materials

Posted on May 14, 2013 by admin

Exam Number/Code : TE0-123

Exam Name : Teradata 12 Physical Design and Implementation exam

Version : Demo

Given the following information:

A company often reports last month’s total sales by channel code and also runs a call center with

high concurrency and quick response time requirements for looking up order history by order

number. Which indexing strategy addresses performance requirements for both access paths?

A. UPI onOrder.Order_Nbr and NUPI on Line.Order_Nbr

B. UPI onOrder.Order_Key and UPI on Line.Order_Key, Line.Line_Nbr

C. NUPI onOrder.Order_Key partitioned by Order.Order_Dt and NUPI on Line.Order_Key

D. NUPI onOrder.Order_Nbr partitioned by Order.Order_Dt, NUSI on Order.Order_Nbr, and NUPI

on Line.Order_Nbr

Answer: B

A table has been partitioned using the RANGE_N function and includes the NO RANGE and

UNKNOWN partitions. There are gaps in the ranges and the designer needs to add new

partitions to fill the gaps. The data in the NO RANGE partitions must be checked against the new

partitions.

Which procedure should be used?

A. Create another table with the new partition definition, then submit an INSERT SELECT

statement to populate the new table.

B. Create another table with the new partition definition, thenextract the data from the NO

RANGE and UNKNOWN partitions and import the data into the new table.

C. Submit an ALTER TABLE statement to add the new partitions, extract the data from the NO

RANGE and UNKNOWN partitions, and import the data into the existing table.

D. Submit an ALTER TABLE statement to add the new partitions, then data from the NO RANGE

and UNKNOWN partitions will automatically be checked against the added partitions.

Answer: C

Given the following table1 containing 10 million rows:

Which issues occur after this statement is run and how can it be fixed?

A. No issues, table2 contains the same rows as table1.

B. table2 is skewed. Specifying an index on column_2 will fix it.

C. table2 is skewed. Specifying a primary index on column_1 will fix it.

D. table2 is skewed. Specifying a primary index on column_2 will fix it.

Answer: C

Which two statements are true about UPIs? (Choose two.)

A. They must be defined as NOT NULL.

B. The database can perform partial-value searches on them.

C. They may be a referenced column in a Referential Integrity constraint.

D. The Optimizer can derive demographical information even without collected statistics.

Answer: B,D

Given the following table definition:

Which two statements are true about inserts into this table? (Choose two.)

A. All duplicate rows from an INSERT SELECT are written to an error table.

B. All duplicate rows from an INSERT SELECT are discarded and the transaction does not fail.

C. For a clone of this table, the same row inserted into each table will share the samedatablock.

D. The second of these two inserts will fail:

INSERT T1 (1, 2);

Answer: A,B

Which action will help conserve disk space?

A. Set permanent space limits for each table that is created.

B. Specify a limit on spool space for users in their profile.

C. Use a low number for the Cylinders saved forPERM setting.

D. Use theDBQL.LogSQL table instead of the DBQL.LogSummary table.

Answer: C