TK0-201 TK0-201 TK0-201 www.cert24.com

Exam Number/Code : TK0-201

Exam Name : CTT+ Exam (Certified Technical Trainer)

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

While facilitating a class an instructor uses a variety of questioning techniques. Which of the following BEST describes the benefits?

A. Challenges learners, involves them and helps to monitor their progress.

B. Establishes an environment that supports learning, and maintains focus on meeting stated learning objectives

C. Facilitates group dynamics in a positive way, while encouraging respectful interactions.

D. Keeps the learners engaged as to what is coming next and conveys the importance of their knowledge.

Answer: A

TK0-201 TK0-201 TK0-201

QUESTION NO: 2

An instructor is conducting a virtual class and finds that several learners do not have computer systems that actually meet the guidelines for the course. Due to this, certain required shared applications will not work for them. Which of the following represents the BEST action for the instructor?

A. Contact the course coordinator to remind learners of the requirements

B. Remove the sharing of applications as the entire class cannot participate.

C. Change the applications that are shared to ones that are compatible to all systems

D. Request the learners use systems that are compatible with the course.

Answer: D

TK0-201 TK0-201 TK0-201

QUESTION NO: 3

An instructor asks a question and a learner provides an incorrect answer that has nothing to do with the question asked. Which of the following is the BEST response?

A. Ask another learner to provide an answer to the question.

B. Repeat the question exactly as originally stated.

C. Rephrase the question completely and ask it again.

D. Reprimand the learner for their response.

Answer: A

TK0-201 TK0-201 TK0-201

QUESTION NO: 4

An instructor is preparing to start a class where several learners have arrived late due to bad weather. The general mood of the learners is poor. Which of the following is the BEST way to handle this situation?

A. Use humor that will create a positive mood.

B. Tell the learners that the class will run late that day

C. Have the learners introduce themselves.

D. Proceed with the course material.

Answer: A

TK0-201 TK0-201 TK0-201

QUESTION NO: 5

An instructor wants to demonstrate a technical topic that requires a certain procedure. Which of the following is the BEST way to achieve this?

A. Have the learners brainstorm ideas on the topic.

B. Have the learners role play the topic.

C. Hold an open discussion on the topic.

D. Show the learners via a desktop sharing demonstration.

Answer: D

TK0-201 TK0-201 TK0-201

VCP-510 VCP-510 VCP-510 www.cert24.com

Prüfungsnummer : VCP-510

Prüfungsname : VMware Certified Professional on vSphere 5

Version : Demo

QUESTION 1

An administrator is troubleshooting an ESXi 5.x host and needs to export diagnostic information. The host is currently managed by a vCenter Server instance.

Which two ways can the information be gathered using the vSphere Client? (Choose two.)

A. Select Home. Under Administration, click System Logs and click the Export System Logs button.

Select the affected ESXi host. Select Select All. Select a location and click Finish.

B. In the vSphere Client, select the affected ESXi host. Right-click the host and select Export Diagnostic

Data. Select a location and click OK.

C. Log in to the ESXi host locally, Select Export System Logs.

D. In the vSphere Client, select the affected ESXi host. Select File, Export and Export System Logs.

Select Select All. Select a location and click Finish.

Answer: AD

VCP-510 VCP-510 VCP-510

QUESTION 2

An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory. Which action can be taken to resolve this problem?

A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.

B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.

C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.

D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.

Answer: C

VCP-510 VCP-510 VCP-510

QUESTION 3

An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that the current status is Not Protected.

What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected? (Choose two.)

A. Stopped – Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.

B. Need Secondary VM – The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine

and is not protected

C. Need Primary VM – The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine

cannot be generated.

D. Disabled – Fault Tolerance is disabled.

Answer: BD

VCP-510 VCP-510 VCP-510

QUESTION 4

Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.x host? (Choose two.)

A. The host has multiple profiles attached.

B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.

C. The host is running virtual machines.

D. The host is an ESXi host.

Answer: BC

VCP-510 VCP-510 VCP-510

QUESTION 5

An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.

Which three options are available? (Choose three.)

A. Automatic

B. Roaming

C. Transient

D. DHCP

E. Fixed

Answer: CDE

VCP-510 VCP-510 VCP-510

QUESTION 6

ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a 10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.

Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this template? (Choose three.)

A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine

B. Move the swap file to a different location

C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore

D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts

E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation

Answer: ABE

VCP-510 VCP-510 VCP-510

UM0-100 UM0-100 UM0-100 www.cert24.com

Prüfungsnummer : UM0-100

Prüfungsname : Omg-Certified uml professionalfundamental exam

Version : Demo

QUESTION 1

What does an association specify?

A. links between associated types

B. relationship among models

C. tuples that are not links

D. links between instances of untyped classes

E. links between instances of associated types

Answer: E

UM0-100 UM0-100 UM0-100

QUESTION 2

What is true of an interaction?

A. An interaction always contains states and transitions.

B. An interaction can be used as types for ports.

C. An interaction is defined by a use case.

D. The semantics of an interaction are defined by event traces.

Answer: D

UM0-100 UM0-100 UM0-100

QUESTION 3

What can be captured by use cases? (Choose two)

A. changes in state over time of the system

B. data and control flow of the system

C. user-interface specification of the system

D. requirements of the system

E. behaviors offered by the system

Answer: DE

UM0-100 UM0-100 UM0-100

QUESTION 4

What does the symbol in the exhibit represent in UML 2.0 activity diagrams?

A. control node

B. behavior

C. state

D. object node

E. activity

F. action

Answer: D

UM0-100 UM0-100 UM0-100

QUESTION 5

What constraint applies to a stop in a UML interaction diagram?

A. No other event occurrences may appear below a stop on a given lifeline in a

simple interaction.

B. If there is a stop on one lifeline, there should be stops on all other lifelines within

an interaction.

C. Only one stop may occur in one interaction.

D. If one lifeline has a stop in one interaction, it should have stops in every interaction that it appears.

Answer: A

UM0-100 UM0-100 UM0-100

UM0-200 UM0-200 UM0-200 www.cert24.com

QUESTION NO: 1

What kinds of arrows connect to central buffers?

A. control flows

B. unidirectional associations

C. object flows

D. state transitions

E. message passing

F. dependencies

Answer: C

UM0-200 UM0-200 UM0-200

QUESTION NO: 2

What does a loop node consist of?

A. clauses

B. partitions

C. parameters

D. bodyPart nodes

E. behaviors

F. guards

Answer: D

UM0-200 UM0-200 UM0-200

QUESTION NO: 3

What is a combined fragment?

A. more than one interaction combined in an interaction overview diagram

B. an interaction occurrence covering more than one lifeline

C. the combination of decomposed lifelines

D. a construct with interaction operands and an interaction operator

Answer: D

UM0-200 UM0-200 UM0-200

QUESTION NO: 4

What is NOT true of a CreateObjectAction?

A. classifier must be abstract

B. classifier cannot be abstract

C. classifier cannot be an association class

D. output pin has multiplicity [1..1]

E. type of the output pin is the classifier.

F. output pin has multiplicity [1..*]

Answer: A,F

UM0-200 UM0-200 UM0-200

UM0-300 UM0-300 UM0-300 www.cert24.com

QUESTION NO: 1

What determines which value an object flow edge chooses to move from the source? (Choose two)

A. transformation

B. upper bound

C. ordering

D. effect

E. weight

F. selection

Answer: D,F

UM0-300 UM0-300 UM0-300

QUESTION NO: 2

A ReplyAction always follows what action?

A. AcceptCallAction

B. AcceptEventAction

C. ReadExtentAction

D. CreateLinkObjectAction

E. StartOwnedBehaviorAction

Answer: A

UM0-300 UM0-300 UM0-300

QUESTION NO: 3

When a component is deleted, what happens to objects in a component’s namespace?

A. objects are deleted

B. only those objects that participate in shared aggregations are retained

C. objects continue to exist

D. contents of the component’s namespace are promoted to its superclass

Answer: A

UM0-300 UM0-300 UM0-300

QUESTION NO: 4

In planning to describe (in UML) a middleware software package, a company recently acquired, which class is most likely created to describe the package itself?

A. Manifestation

B. Device

C. DeploymentSpecification

D. ExecutionEnvironment

E. Artifact

Answer: D

UM0-300 UM0-300 UM0-300

QUESTION NO: 5

What does a port specification on a trigger do?

A. restrict the trigger to events arriving through a specific port

B. delay the creation of the parts of an encapsulated classifier until a specified request is received

C. create a new port after a classifier has been instantiated

D. send a request to a port

Answer: A

UM0-300 UM0-300 UM0-300

VCP-410 VCP-410 VCP-410 www.cert24.com

QUESTION 1

When installing ESX 4.0, where is the Service Console file system located?

A. In a virtual disk on a local VMFSdatastore

B. On a local physical disk

C. In a virtual disk on a local or shared VMFSdatastore

D. On a local physical disk or on a mapped SAN LUN

Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:

The reason for this is the fact that the service console is a VMDK. This VMDK is stored

on the local VMFS volume by default in the following location:

esxconsole-/esxconsole.vmdk.

Everyone at this point should be aware that the Service Console is now located in a vmdk

on a VMFS partition. The Service Console vmdk must be stored on a vmfs datastore and

the datastore must either be local storage or SAN storage that is only presented to the one host

VCP-410 VCP-410 VCP-410

QUESTION 2

An administrator is installing ESX 4.0 on a physical server. Which of the following

components would need to be modified or replaced to support a successful installation?

A. 2 AMDOpteron CPUs

B. 4GB RAM

C. 2 LSI Logic LSI7202XP-LCFibre Channel HBAs

D. 4 Intel PRO 1000 Network Adapters

Answer: C

Explanation/Reference:

Getting Started with ESX, ESX 4.0, vCenter Server 4.0, Page 6.

ESX Hardware Requirements

64-Bit Processor

-VMware ESX 4.0 will only install and run on servers with 64-bit x86 CPUs.

-Known 64-bit processors:

-All AMD Opterons support 64 bit.

…

RAM

2GB RAM minimum

Network Adapters

…

-Intel PRO 1000 adapters

VCP-410 VCP-410 VCP-410

QUESTION 3

The default swap partition size for ESX 4.0 is which of the following?

A. 600MB

B. 1.6GB

C. 800MB

D. 544MB

Answer: A

Explanation/Reference:

Mastering VMware vSphere 4 Page 25.

‘As a general rule, swap files are created with a size equal to at least two times the

memory allocated to the operating system. The installation process allocates a default

amount of 300MB of memory for the Service Console; therefore, the default swap

partition size would be 600MB. ‘

VCP-410 VCP-410 VCP-410

QUESTION 4

The ESX 4.x Service Console Virtual Disk can be located on (Choose Two):

A. a VMFSdatastore on software iSCSI attached storage

B. a VMFSdatastore on non-shared FC attached storage

C. a VMFSdatastore on locally attached storage

D. an NFSdatastore

Answer: BC

Explanation/Reference:

Everyone at this point should be aware that the Service Console is now located in a vmdk

on a VMFS partition. The Service Console vmdk must be stored on a vmfs datastore and

the datastore must either be local storage or SAN storage that is only presented to the one

host

Fibre Channel, or FC, is a gigabit-speed network technology primarily used for storage

networking

Getting Started with ESX, ESX 4.0, vCenter Server 4.0, page 6

ESX Hardware Requirements

* SCSI Adapter, Fibre Channel Adapter, or Internal RAID Controller

VCP-410 VCP-410 VCP-410

VCP510-DT VCP510-DT VCP510-DT www.cert24.com

QUESTION NO: 1

Which two steps are part of the View Composer installation process? (Choose two.)

A. select the Enable View Composer checkbox in the View Administrator

B. install the View Composer on the vCenter Server system

C. register View Composer service on the Windows system

D. configure ODBC connection to the View Composer database

Answer: B,D

VCP510-DT VCP510-DT VCP510-DT

QUESTION NO: 2

The View Composer Database stores information about which three components and connections? (Choose three.)

A. Active Directory Connections

B. View Connection Broker Connections

C. Replicas created by the View Composer

D. Disposable data disk created by View Composer

E. Linked-clone desktops deployed by View Composer

Answer: A,C,E

VCP510-DT VCP510-DT VCP510-DT

QUESTION NO: 3

Which two platforms are supported by VMware View Composer in a VMware View 5 environment? (Choose two.)

A. VMware vCenter 4.0 Update 3 running on Windows Server 2008 R2

B. VMware vCenter 4.1 Update 1 running on Windows XP Pro 64-bit

C. VMware vCenter 4.1 Update 1 running on Windows Server 2003 64-bit

D. VMware vCenter 5.0 running on Windows Server 2008 R2

Answer: A,D

VCP510-DT VCP510-DT VCP510-DT

QUESTION NO: 4

What are three supported Database Servers for VMware View Composer in a VMware View 5 environment? (Choose three.)

A. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express with vCenter Server 4.1 U1

B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express with vCenter Server 5.0

C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 SP3 Standard with vCenter Server 5.0

D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 Express with vCenter 4.0 U3

E. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 Express with vCenter Server 5.0

Answer: A,C,E

VCP510-DT VCP510-DT VCP510-DT

QUESTION NO: 5

What is the proper syntax to use when adding a domain user to the View Composer configuration?

A. DOMAIN\USER

B. DOMAIN.COM\USER

C. OU=DOMAIN, CN=USER

D. [email protected]

Answer: B

VCP510-DT VCP510-DT VCP510-DT

ZF-100-500 ZF-100-500 ZF-100-500 www.cert24.com

QUESTION 1

Fill in the blank with the appropriate PHP function. The_____________ function is used to replace the current session id with the new session id, and to keep information of the current session.

A. session_regenerate_id()

Answer: A

ZF-100-500 ZF-100-500 ZF-100-500

QUESTION 2

Celina works as a Database Administrator for Tech Mart Inc. The company uses an Oracle database. The database contains a table named Employees. Following is the structure of the table: EmpID NUMBER (5) PRIMARY KEY EmpName VARCHAR2 (35) NOT NULL Salary NUMBER (9, 2) NOT NULL Commission NUMBER (4, 2) ManagerName VARCHAR2 (25) ManagerID NUMBER (5) Celina wants to display the names of employees and their managers, using a self join. Which of the following SQL statements will she use to accomplish this? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.

Choose two.

A. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName

FROM Employees e, Employeesm

WHERE e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;

B. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName

FROM Employees e INNER JOIN Employeesm

ON e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;

C. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName

FROM Employees e LEFT OUTER JOIN Employees m

ON e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;

D. SELECT e.EmpName, m.Ma nagerName

FROM Employees e SELF JOIN Employeesm

ON e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;

Answer: AB

ZF-100-500 ZF-100-500 ZF-100-500

QUESTION 3

Which of the following actions may fail if you have exceeded your quota limit?

A. addTo()

B. send()

C. addBcc()

D. appendMessage()

Answer: D

ZF-100-500 ZF-100-500 ZF-100-500

CISA CISA CISA www.cert24.com

Exam Number/Code : CISA

Exam Name: Isaca CISA

Version : Demo

1. A number of system failures are occurring when corrections to previously detected errors are resubmitted for acceptance testing. This would indicate that the maintenance team is probably not adequately performing which of the following types of testing?
A. Unit testing
B. Integration testing
C. Design walk-throughs
D. Configuration management
Answer: B

Explanation:
A common system maintenance problem is that errors are often corrected quickly (especially when deadlines are tight) , units are tested by the programmer, and then transferred to the acceptance test area.
This often results in system problems that should have been detected during integration or system testing. Integration testing aims at ensuring that the major components of the system interface correctly.

CISA CISA CISA www.cert24.com

2. In an EDI process, the device which transmits and receives electronic documents is the:
A. communications handler.
B. EDI translator.
C. application interface.
D. EDI interface.
Answer: A

Explanation:
A communications handler transmits and receives electronic documents between trading partners and/or wide area networks (WANs).
Incorrect answers:
B. An EDI translator translates data between the standard format and a trading partner’s proprietary format.
C. An application interface moves electronic transactions to, or from, the application system and performs data mapping.
D. An EDI interface manipulates and routes data between the application system and the communications
handler.

CISA CISA CISA www.cert24.com

HP0-S35 HP0-D21 C_TAW12_731 

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