IT Certification,braindumps,original questions NS0-510

Exam Number/Code : NS0-510

Exam Name: NCIE – Backup and Recovery Implementation Engineer Exam

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

Which two technologies serve as the basis for SnapVault-based backups? (Choose two.)

A. QSM

B. VSM

C. SyncMirror

D. Snapshot

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 2

Which NetApp backup and recovery solution is best for backing up remote office heterogeneous data storage?

A. Snapshot copies

B. SnapManager

C. SnapVault

D. Open System SnapVault

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3

From which three platforms does Open Systems SnapVault support backup and restore? (Choose three.)

A. IBM AIX

B. SunOS

C. HP HP-UX

D. Linux

E. Windows NT, Windows 2000, and Windows Server 2003

F. SGI IRIX

Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 4

What are three components of an Open Systems SnapVault (OSSV) installation? (Choose three.)

A. Primary System

B. Secondary System

C. OSSV agent installed on the primary system

D. OSSV agent installed on the secondary system

E. NetApp primary system

Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION NO: 5

The NearStore VTL provides a masking function to control Host access to virtual devices.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

OG0-093 IT Certification,braindumps,original questions

Posted on June 23, 2013 by admin

OG0-093 IT Certification,braindumps,original questions

Exam Number/Code : OG0-093

Exam Name : TOGAF 9 Combined Part 1 and Part 2

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

Which of the following TOGAF components was created to enable architects to design

architectures addressing Boundaryless Information Flow?

A. The Architecture Repository

B. The Enterprise Continuum

C. The Integrated Information Infrastructure Model

D. The TOGAF Technical Reference Model

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2

Which of the following best describes the TOGAF Technical Reference Model?

A. It is a detailed data model that can be tailored to specific industries

B. It is an example of a Common Systems Architecture

C. It is a fundamental architecture upon which more specific architectures can be based

D. It is a model of application components and application services software, including brokering applications

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3

Which one of the following statements about the structure of the TOGAF 9 document is true?

A. Part I, the Enterprise Continuum, describes a model for structuring a virtual repository

B. Part II, the Architecture Development Method, describes the definitions of terms used in

TOGAF, and the changes between versions of TOGAF

C. Part III, Tools and Support, describes a collection of guidelines and techniques used in the other parts of TOGAF

D. Part VI, TOGAF Reference Models, includes a model for release management of the TOGAF specification

E. Part VII, the Architecture Capability Framework, describes processes and skills to establish an enterprise function

Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 4

Which phase of the ADM ensures that implementation projects conform to the defined

architecture?

A. Requirements Management

B. Phase D

C. Phase F

D. Phase G

E. Phase H

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5

Complete the sentence. The Requirements Management Phase _____________________.

A. addresses and resolves requirements between ADM phases

B. is a central process that prioritizes requirements for all ADM phases

C. is used to dispose of resolved requirements for all ADM phases

D. generates new requirements and passes them to all ADM phases

E. stores requirements and manages their flow into relevant ADM phases

Answer: E

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IT Certification,braindumps,original questions P_ADM_SEC_70

Posted on June 23, 2013 by admin

IT Certification,braindumps,original questions P_ADM_SEC_70

Exam Number/Code : P_ADM_SEC_70

Exam Name : SAP Certified Technology Professional – Security with SAP NetWeaver 7.0

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

Which of the following statements regarding SSO and SAP Logon Tickets are true?

Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Users have the same user ID and password in all of the systems they access using

SAP Logon Tickets.

B. The end users’ Web browsers accept cookies (SAP GUI not in use).

C. The clocks for the accepting systems are synchronized with the ticket-issuing system.

D. The SSO ticket is issued after successful login to the SAP NetWeaver AS Java.

E. The cookie is stored in the temporary folder of the local GUI.

Answer: B,C,D

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QUESTION NO: 2

Which of the following authentication mechanisms are available for SAP NetWeaver AS Java?

Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Security session IDs for Single Sign-On between applications

B. SAP Logon Tickets for Single Sign-On

C. SAML Assertions for Single Sign-On

D. Web Dynpro for Single Sign-On

E. Kerberos Authentication for Single Sign-On

Answer: A,B,C

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QUESTION NO: 3

Which of the following authentication mechanisms is not accepted by SAP NetWeaver Portal 7.0?

A. SAML Assertions

B. User ID / password

C. X.509 client certificates

D. SNC based authentication

E. Web Access Management (WAM) products

Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 4

A customer uses an LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol ) enabled directory server. To

simplify the administration of SAP users, Central User Administration (CUA) was introduced. Now

there are plans to synchronize the LDAP enabled directory server with the CUA. Which of the

following statements are true?

Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. The SAP user field: BNAME is already a standard for most of the LDAP enabled directory

server. Therefore the field mappings can be easily customized.

B. The synchronization of fields can be controlled via a mapping transaction in SAP ABAP.

C. A prerequisite for the communication between the CUA and the LDAP enabled directory server

is to open the LDAP(s) port in the firewall environment, if a firewall is used.

D. The communication between LDAP and the CUA is based on PI 7.1. Therefore, SAP specific PI

adapter ports must be open in the firewall environment.

E. A SAPROUTER must be used to establish the proper connection between the SAP CUA and

the LDAP provider.

Answer: B,C

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QUESTION NO: 5

Which of the following statements regarding load balancers are true?

Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. With a reverse proxy, you can route incoming requests to different services based on the URL

path.

B. The SAP Web Dispatcher is a full-fledged reverse proxy.

C. The SAP Web Dispatcher uses SAP Logon Groups in Enterprise Portal scenarios.

D. You can administer the SAP Web Dispatcher using transaction: WEBDISP.

E. You can combine the SAP Web Dispatcher and web switches in the demilitarized zone (DMZ).

Answer: A,E

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P_SD_64 IT Certification,braindumps,original questions

Posted on June 23, 2013 by admin

P_SD_64 IT Certification,braindumps,original questions

Exam Number/Code : P_SD_64

Exam Name: SAP Certified Application Professional – Order Fulfillment with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP4

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

Your customer has added fields to the sales order item table. These should be included into Sales Information System (SIS) and SAP BW reports. How do you ensure data accuracy before activating the respective DataSource?

A. Prevent document updates

B. Lock setup table

C. Delete BW data

D. Deactivate RFC connections

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2

SAP credit management allows you to use predefined analyses in the SAP BW.

What is a key benefit of this strategic reporting?

A. Automatic handling of the order to cash process in managing the credit limit.

B. Monitoring credit risks and analysis of customer payment and order behavior.

C. Immediate analysis of customers to trigger alerts in the invoicing process.

D. Monitoring of delivery processes to reduce the risk of supplying a bankrupt customer.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

A customer is still using the Logistic Information System (LIS) but considers introducing SAP BW.

After analyzing the reports, what would be a reason to keep LIS for some of the reports?

A. The BW reports are unable to handle more than twelve dimensions.

B. These LIS reports already contain interactive visual analytical views.

C. The BW is unable to handle the required authorization concept.

D. The posting of data to LIS is event controlled and allows real-time reporting.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4

Sales documents are extracted from SAP ERP to SAP BW using the Logistics Cockpit.

How do you ensure that only changed documents are extracted?

A. Implement a User Exit.

B. Activate the supplied Business Add-In.

C. This requirement is met by standard functionality.

D. Reduce the frequency of extracts for sales, billing, and delivery documents.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 5

How do you characterize the principle of the availability check?

A. First Come – First Served

B. Last In – First Out

C. First In – First Out

D. First Expired – First Out

Answer: A

PK0-003 IT Certification,braindumps,original questions

Posted on June 23, 2013 by admin

PK0-003 IT Certification,braindumps,original questions

Exam Number/Code : PK0-003

Exam Name : Project+ (2009)

Version : Demo

QUESTION 1

Which of the following are process groups in the project life cycle? (Select THREE).

A. Accepting

B. Mitigating

C. Avoiding

D. Initiating

E. Closing

F. Planning

Answer: DEF

QUESTION 2

A project team is comfortable working as a group and has accepted all the project ground rules. They support each other to reach the project goals. Which of the following stages of team development is the project team demonstrating?

A. Storming

B. Performing

C. Conforming

D. Forming

Answer: B

QUESTION 3

A project manager is informed that material expenditures will increase. Which of the following documents should be referenced to address this increase?

A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

B. Cost management plan

C. Approved project charter

D. Project scope document

Answer: B

QUESTION 4

The project charter is an output of which of the following project phases?

A. Initiation

B. Planning

C. Execution

D. Closing

Answer: A

QUESTION 5

All of the following are considered part of the risk management plan EXCEPT the risk:

A. register.

B. matrix.

C. assessment.

D. baseline.

Answer: D

IT Certification,braindumps,original questions PRINCE2

Posted on June 23, 2013 by admin

IT Certification,braindumps,original questions PRINCE2

Exam Number/Code : PRINCE2

Exam Name : PRINCE2 Foundation

Version : Demo

QUESTION 1

In what product is used to define the information that justifies the setting up,

continuation or termination of the project?

A. Project Initiation Document

B. Business Case

C. End Stage Approval

D. Project Brief

Answer: B

QUESTION 2

Which product keeps track of Requests For Change?

A. Request Log

B. Daily Log

C. Quality Log

D. Issue Log

Answer: D

QUESTION 3

What provision in Planning can be made for implementing Requests for Change?

A. Project and stage tolerances

B. Contingency plans

C. A Change Budget

D. Adding a contingency margin to estimates

Answer: C

QUESTION 4

FilL in the missing phrase from” a project is a management environment that is created for the purpose of delivering one or more business products according to……”

A. TheCustomer’sNeds

B. An Agreed Contract

C. The Project Plan

D. A specified Business Case

Answer: D

QUESTION 5

In what sequence would the (a) Project Initiation Document, (b) the Project Mandate and (c) the Project Brief appear in a project?

A. a, b, c

B. b, c, a

C. c, a, b

D. c, b, a

Answer: B

SK0-003 IT Certification,braindumps,original questions

Posted on June 23, 2013 by admin

SK0-003 IT Certification,braindumps,original questions

Exam Number/Code : SK0-003

Exam Name : CompTIA Server+Certification Exam

Version : Demo

QUESTION 1

Which of the following would be an advantage to using a blade server as opposed to a rack mount server?

Blade servers allow for internal tape drives

Blade servers offer more rack density

Blade servers are typically faster

Blade servers allow for more RAM

Answer: B

QUESTION 2

A stripe set of maximum size is to be configured using two physical disks. One disk has 150GB andthe other has 250GB in unallocated space. Which of the following will be the size of the stripe set?

150GB

300GB

400GB

500GB

Answer: B

QUESTION 3

A technician has a current baseline and is told to install additional memory and a faster NIC card. At which point in time should the next baseline be run?

After the memory is installed

Before the upgrade is performed

After the NIC is installed

After the upgrades are performed

Answer: D

QUESTION 4

Users report that they are unable to connect to a server. An administrator confirms that it isunreachable across the network. Other administrators have been working in the server room throughout the day. Which of the following is the NEXT step the administrator should take?

Verify the configuration of the connected port on the network switch.

Reboot the server.

Install a new NIC on the server.

Verify that network cables are connected.

Answer: D

QUESTION 5

A company utilizes the GFS backup standard. Which of the following describes this backup method?

Greatest, Final, Sequential

Full, Partial, Incremental

Monthly, Weekly, Daily

Full, Differential, Incremental

Answer: C

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IT Certification,braindumps,original questions SPS-200

Posted on June 23, 2013 by admin

IT Certification,braindumps,original questions SPS-200

Exam Number/Code : SPS-200

Exam Name : IBMSPSSMPRO: IBM SPSS Modeler Professional

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

Which key items must be identified before a data mining project is started? (Select all that apply)

A. A business problem or question

B. Data quality problem

C. Available data

D. Available expertise on the data and business

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 2

Given the following Output Table to create a select node which includes vehicles from both groups A and B, click on A and on B (as shown) and select from the menu.

A. Generate … Select Node (“Or”)

B. Generate … Select Node (“And”)

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

Which nodes are best suited for revealing relationship between categorical (nominal, ordinal) fields? (Select all that apply)

A. Means node

B. Matrix node

C. Distribution node

D. Table node

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 4

In two step node shown below, what does standardize numeric fields mean?

A. Eliminate outliers to improve results.

B. Transform the numeric fields to a scale with a mean of zero and variance of one.

C. Limit the number of created clusters.

D. Use only the numeric fields scale.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5

Which statement is correct regarding the sample node dialogue shown below?

A. It will select every 60th record from the data.

B. It will randomly select exactly 60% of all the record.

C. It will select approximately 60% of the records. This is, each record will have a 605 probability of being selected.

D. It will always draw the same 60% of records each time this sample node is run.

Answer: C

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SPS-201 IT Certification,braindumps,original questions

Posted on June 23, 2013 by admin

SPS-201 IT Certification,braindumps,original questions

Exam Number/Code : SPS-201

Exam Name : IBMSPSSMBPDA: IBM SPSS Modeler Business Partner Data Analyst Associate

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

Which fields are created by this Derive dialog?

A. Three fields representing the difference between Travel-1 and each of other Travel fields.

B. No operation will be performed because the express is invalid.

C. Four fields representing the difference in weeks between AcctEst and each of the travel fields.

D. A field representing the difference between AcctEst and the global @ FIELD value.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2

A prison system has historical data on prison inmates and wants to find what factors are related to recidivism (return to prison). What type of model would be used?

A. Segmentation model

B. Classification model

C. Association model

D. Anomaly model

Answer: B

Explanation: A classification model is tested by applying it to test data with known target values and comparing the predicted values with the known values.

The test data must be compatible with the data used to build the model and must be prepared in the same way that the build data was prepared. Typically the build data and test data come from the same historical data set. A percentage of the records is used to build the model; the remaining

records are used to test the model.

Test metrics are used to assess how accurately the model predicts the known values. If the model performs well and meets the business requirements, it can then be applied to new data to predict the future.

QUESTION NO: 3

Which node is used to read data from a comma delimited text file?

A. Var. File

B. Data Collection

C. Fixed File

D. Statistics File

Answer: A

Reference:ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/analytics/spss/documentation/modeler/14.2/en/SourceProcessOutputNodes.pdf- p.18

QUESTION NO: 4

The optional binning method in the Binning node uses a Supervisor field to determine the binning cut points.

A. True

B. False

Answer: A

Reference:ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/analytics/spss/documentation/modeler/14.2/en/SourceProcessOutputNodes.pdf

QUESTION NO: 5

Which node can be used to easily generate a field that divides the data into subsamples for the training and testing stages of modeling?

A. Sample

B. Filler

C. Balance

D. Partition

Answer: D

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Reference:ftp://ftp.software.ibm.com/software/analytics/spss/documentation/modeler/14.2/en/SourceProcessOutputNodes.pdf- p.176.

IT Certification,braindumps,original questions ST0-12X

Posted on June 23, 2013 by admin

IT Certification,braindumps,original questions ST0-12X

Exam Number/Code : ST0-12X

Exam Name : Veritas Cluster Server 5 for Unix(STS)

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

Two applications must either be online on the same system of a cluster or offline on the same system of a cluster. Which Location of Dependency supports this behavior?

A. global

B. local

C. hard

D. Remote

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2

A dependent service group can be brought online on SystemA only if an independent service group is online in the same Veritas Cluster Server cluster. If the independent service group faults, the dependent service group is taken offline. After the independent service group successfully fails over, Veritas Cluster Server will bring the dependent service group online. Which type of service group dependency does this describe?

A. online global firm

B. online local soft

C. offline local soft

D. offline global hard

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3

You have a two-system cluster with a production application on one system and a test application on another. The test and production applications cannot run on the same system at the same time.

If the production application needs to fail over, the test application must be shut down first. Which category of service group dependency supports this behavior?

A. offline

B. global

C. local

D. Online

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4

You are running a Veritas Cluster Server cluster that is replicating to a remote site. Your DBA creates a new volume for additional table space. How could this affect your disaster recovery?

A. The amount oftablespace replicated may now exceed the licensed amount.

B. The additional table space may not be formatted for replication.

C. The number of volumes replicated may now exceed the licensed amount.

D. The volume may not be added to the replicated volume group.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5

What is the Veritas Storage Foundation feature that allows you to easily get a static copy of replicated data at the secondary site?

A. Snapshots

B. FastResync

C. Data Change Maps

D. Global Cluster Option

Answer: A