ST0-91X IT Certification,braindumps,original questions

QUESTION 2

A tape library had the robot firmware upgraded and now the robot is reading the barcodes with additional characters. What can be set so that Symantec NetBackup 7.0 uses the same characters as before the firmware upgrade occurred?

A. Media ID generation

B. Media ID display

C. media type mapping

D. barcode rules

Answer: A

QUESTION 3

Which two media status designations are excluded in the count against maximum number of partially full media? (Select two.)

A. Frozen

B. Imported

C. Active

D. Available

E. Inactive

Answer: AB

QUESTION 4

Five media servers are configured in a storage unit group and media server load balancing is configured. There are 20 backups currently running from ten clients across the LAN. A new backup is started. What is the first criteria Symantec NetBackup 7.0 uses to determine which media server to use for the backup?

A. server rank, based on the Device Management Service

B. the media server that has the most blank tapes assigned

C. server rank, based on the media server performance

D. the media server that has the most free disk space

Answer: C

QUESTION 5

Some UNIX clients are being backed up using the policy type Standard using the directive ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES. The amount of data being backed up per client in each backup session is much larger than the data available on each client. Which change should the administrator make to avoid the local server data from being backed up repetitively?

A. disable the attribute “Cross mount points”

B. disable the attribute “Follow NFS”

C. add the following entry to the file list “UNSET_ALL”

D. disable the attribute “Collect true image restore information with move detection”

Answer: A

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IT Certification,braindumps,original questions ST0-099

Posted on June 23, 2013 by admin

IT Certification,braindumps,original questions ST0-099

Exam Number/Code : ST0-099

Exam Name : Symantec Enterprise Vault 9.0(STS)

Version : Demo

QUESTION 1

What is the minimum version of the .NET framework required on the Enterprise Vault Server for Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange?

A. .NET 4.0

B. .NET 3.5 SP1

C. .NET 1.1 and 2.0

D. .NET 2.0 and 3.0 SP2

Answer: B

QUESTION 2

Which feature delegation must be set to Read/Write in Internet Information Services (IIS 7.0) before installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Web Access (OWA) Extensions?

A. .NET Trust Levels

B. .NET Roles

C. Failed Request Tracing Rules

D. IPv4 Address and Domain Restrictions

Answer: D

QUESTION 3

A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server environment. In order to perform a point-in-time recovery of the database, what must be backed up daily?

A. the EnterpriseVaultDirectory SQL database

B. the SQL transaction logs

C. the SQL databases

D. the EnterpriseVaultAuditing SQL database

Answer: B

QUESTION 4

A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server environment. The administrator has yet to run a backup of the vault store partition. The

administrator has Safety Copy enabled for the Vault Store. Given that the administrator has already performed some mailbox archiving, what should occur after running the backup for the first time and clearing the archive bit?

A. The safety copies are removed from the Exchange store.

B. The safety copies are removed from the storage queues.

C. The safety copies are flagged for removal for the next Storage Expiry.

D. The safety copies are flagged for removal when the services are restarted.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5

A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server environment. On which context menu in the Vault Admin Console does the administrator set and clear the vault store backup mode?

A. the Enterprise Vault database

B. the Enterprise Vault services

C. the Enterprise Vault server

D. the Enterprise Vault site

Answer: D

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ST0-130 IT Certification,braindumps,original questions

Posted on June 23, 2013 by admin

ST0-130 IT Certification,braindumps,original questions

Exam Number/Code: ST0-130

Exam Name: Symantec Management Platform 7.1 Technical Assessment

Version: Demo

QUESTION 1

Why would an administrator want to save a report as a web part?

A. to save the results for later reference

B. to use in a resource target

C. to use in a portal page

D. to be able to e-mail the results

Answer: C

QUESTION 2

An administrator has joined a computer to a domain managed by Microsoft Active Directory. Which two items must the administrator enable to automate the installation of the Altiris Agent on this computer? (Select two.)

A. Altiris Agent for Windows – Install policy

B. Windows Computers with no Altiris Agent installed filter

C. Microsoft Active Directory import rule

D. Windows Computers with no Altiris Agent installed target

E. Scheduled Push to Computers policy

Answer: CE

QUESTION 3

What is the first point of contact for the Altiris Agent?

A. Notification Server

B. Symantec Management Console

C. Package Service

D. Task Service

Answer: A

QUESTION 4

Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?

A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to the Altiris Agent.

B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification Server.

C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.

D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5

Which component enables users to view data from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?

A. Log Viewer

B. Reports

C. Notification Server

D. Software Management Framework

Answer: B

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IT Certification,braindumps,original questions ST0-141

Posted on June 23, 2013 by admin

IT Certification,braindumps,original questions ST0-141

Exam Number/Code : ST0-141

Exam Name : Symantec Backup Exec 2012 Technical Assessment

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

Which Symantec Backup Exec 2012 default global scheduling option allows jobs to be cancelled without manual intervention?

A. job auto cancel after ‘x’ hours after its scheduled start time

B. kill the job if it is still running ‘x’ hours after its scheduled start time

C. terminate the job if it is still running ‘x’ hours if no data has incremented

D. cancel the job if it is still running ‘x’ hours after its scheduled start time

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2

In Symantec Backup Exec 2012, scheduled convert to virtual jobs can be configured to support which two sources? (Select two.)

A. all differential backups

B. all full backups

C. most recent snap

D. last incremental with changed block tracking enabled

E. most recent full backup

Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 3

Where are the Symantec Backup Exec Job Log files stored by default?

A. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec

B. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Data

C. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Logs

D. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Log

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4

For GRT operations, in which two instances must the default path for the TEMP directory specified in “Symantec Backup Exec 2012 > Configuration and settings > Backup Exec Settings > Granular Recovery Technology” be modified? (Select two.)

A. when the default path is the system volume

B. when the default path is a mapped drive letter

C. when the default path is NTFS

D. when the default path is FAT32

E. when the default path contains the Windows page file

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 5

A backup job failed with an access denied error message. Which option in the backup job property can be used to set the correct permissions?

A. verify credentials

B. user account credentials

C. validate credentials

D. test/edit credentials

Answer: D

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SY0-301 IT Certification,braindumps,original questions

Posted on June 23, 2013 by admin

SY0-301 IT Certification,braindumps,original questions

Exam Number/Code : SY0-301

Exam Name : Security+ Certification Exam 2011 version

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

Actively monitoring data streams in search of malicious code or behavior is an example of:

A. load balancing.

B. an Internet proxy.

C. URL filtering.

D. content inspection.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2

Which of the following network devices would MOST likely be used to detect but not react to suspicious behavior on the network?

A. Firewall

B. NIDS

C. NIPS

D. HIDS

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

The security administrator is getting reports from users that they are accessing certain websites and are unable to download anything off of those sites. The security administrator is also receiving several alarms from the IDS about suspicious traffic on the network. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A. NIPS is blocking activities from those specific websites.

B. NIDS is blocking activities from those specific websites.

C. The firewall is blocking web activity.

D. The router is denying all traffic from those sites.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4

Which of the following tools provides the ability to determine if an application is transmitting a password in clear-text?

A. Protocol analyzer

B. Port scanner

C. Vulnerability scanner

D. Honeypot

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5

Which of the following can a security administrator implement to help identify smurf attacks?

A. Load balancer

B. Spam filters

C. NIDS

D. Firewall

Answer: C

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IT Certification,braindumps,original questions TE0-123

Posted on June 23, 2013 by admin

IT Certification,braindumps,original questions TE0-123

Exam Number/Code : TE0-123

Exam Name : Teradata 12 Physical Design and Implementation exam

Version : Demo

Given the following information:

A company often reports last month’s total sales by channel code and also runs a call center with

high concurrency and quick response time requirements for looking up order history by order

number. Which indexing strategy addresses performance requirements for both access paths?

A. UPI onOrder.Order_Nbr and NUPI on Line.Order_Nbr

B. UPI onOrder.Order_Key and UPI on Line.Order_Key, Line.Line_Nbr

C. NUPI onOrder.Order_Key partitioned by Order.Order_Dt and NUPI on Line.Order_Key

D. NUPI onOrder.Order_Nbr partitioned by Order.Order_Dt, NUSI on Order.Order_Nbr, and NUPI

on Line.Order_Nbr

Answer: B

A table has been partitioned using the RANGE_N function and includes the NO RANGE and

UNKNOWN partitions. There are gaps in the ranges and the designer needs to add new

partitions to fill the gaps. The data in the NO RANGE partitions must be checked against the new

partitions.

Which procedure should be used?

A. Create another table with the new partition definition, then submit an INSERT SELECT

statement to populate the new table.

B. Create another table with the new partition definition, thenextract the data from the NO

RANGE and UNKNOWN partitions and import the data into the new table.

C. Submit an ALTER TABLE statement to add the new partitions, extract the data from the NO

RANGE and UNKNOWN partitions, and import the data into the existing table.

D. Submit an ALTER TABLE statement to add the new partitions, then data from the NO RANGE

and UNKNOWN partitions will automatically be checked against the added partitions.

Answer: C

Given the following table1 containing 10 million rows:

Which issues occur after this statement is run and how can it be fixed?

A. No issues, table2 contains the same rows as table1.

B. table2 is skewed. Specifying an index on column_2 will fix it.

C. table2 is skewed. Specifying a primary index on column_1 will fix it.

D. table2 is skewed. Specifying a primary index on column_2 will fix it.

Answer: C

Which two statements are true about UPIs? (Choose two.)

A. They must be defined as NOT NULL.

B. The database can perform partial-value searches on them.

C. They may be a referenced column in a Referential Integrity constraint.

D. The Optimizer can derive demographical information even without collected statistics.

Answer: B,D

Given the following table definition:

Which two statements are true about inserts into this table? (Choose two.)

A. All duplicate rows from an INSERT SELECT are written to an error table.

B. All duplicate rows from an INSERT SELECT are discarded and the transaction does not fail.

C. For a clone of this table, the same row inserted into each table will share the samedatablock.

D. The second of these two inserts will fail:

INSERT T1 (1, 2);

Answer: A,B

Which action will help conserve disk space?

A. Set permanent space limits for each table that is created.

B. Specify a limit on spool space for users in their profile.

C. Use a low number for the Cylinders saved forPERM setting.

D. Use theDBQL.LogSQL table instead of the DBQL.LogSummary table.

Answer: C

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TK0-201 IT Certification,braindumps,original questions

Posted on June 23, 2013 by admin

TK0-201 IT Certification,braindumps,original questions

Exam Number/Code : TK0-201

Exam Name : CTT+ Exam (Certified Technical Trainer)

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

While facilitating a class an instructor uses a variety of questioning techniques. Which of the following BEST describes the benefits?

A. Challenges learners, involves them and helps to monitor their progress.

B. Establishes an environment that supports learning, and maintains focus on meeting stated learning objectives

C. Facilitates group dynamics in a positive way, while encouraging respectful interactions.

D. Keeps the learners engaged as to what is coming next and conveys the importance of their knowledge.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2

An instructor is conducting a virtual class and finds that several learners do not have computer systems that actually meet the guidelines for the course. Due to this, certain required shared applications will not work for them. Which of the following represents the BEST action for the instructor?

A. Contact the course coordinator to remind learners of the requirements

B. Remove the sharing of applications as the entire class cannot participate.

C. Change the applications that are shared to ones that are compatible to all systems

D. Request the learners use systems that are compatible with the course.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3

An instructor asks a question and a learner provides an incorrect answer that has nothing to do with the question asked. Which of the following is the BEST response?

A. Ask another learner to provide an answer to the question.

B. Repeat the question exactly as originally stated.

C. Rephrase the question completely and ask it again.

D. Reprimand the learner for their response.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4

An instructor is preparing to start a class where several learners have arrived late due to bad weather. The general mood of the learners is poor. Which of the following is the BEST way to handle this situation?

A. Use humor that will create a positive mood.

B. Tell the learners that the class will run late that day

C. Have the learners introduce themselves.

D. Proceed with the course material.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5

An instructor wants to demonstrate a technical topic that requires a certain procedure. Which of the following is the BEST way to achieve this?

A. Have the learners brainstorm ideas on the topic.

B. Have the learners role play the topic.

C. Hold an open discussion on the topic.

D. Show the learners via a desktop sharing demonstration.

Answer: D

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IT Certification,braindumps,original questions VCP-510

Posted on June 23, 2013 by admin

IT Certification,braindumps,original questions VCP-510

Exam Number/Code : VCP-510

Exam Name : VMware Certified Professional on vSphere 5

Version : Demo

QUESTION 1

An administrator is troubleshooting an ESXi 5.x host and needs to export diagnostic information. The host is currently managed by a vCenter Server instance.

Which two ways can the information be gathered using the vSphere Client? (Choose two.)

A. Select Home. Under Administration, click System Logs and click the Export System Logs button.

Select the affected ESXi host. Select Select All. Select a location and click Finish.

B. In the vSphere Client, select the affected ESXi host. Right-click the host and select Export Diagnostic

Data. Select a location and click OK.

C. Log in to the ESXi host locally, Select Export System Logs.

D. In the vSphere Client, select the affected ESXi host. Select File, Export and Export System Logs.

Select Select All. Select a location and click Finish.

Answer: AD

QUESTION 2

An administrator notices that when a virtual machine is placed into a resource pool, a warning indicates that the virtual machine will receive a very large percentage of the total shares for memory. Which action can be taken to resolve this problem?

A. Increase the memory resource allocation to the resource pool.

B. Increase the share value for the resource pool.

C. Change the shares setting from custom to high, medium, or low for the virtual machine.

D. Decrease the memory allocation for the virtual machine.

Answer: C

QUESTION 3

An administrator views the Fault Tolerance pane of the Summary tab of a virtual machine and finds that the current status is Not Protected.

What are two vSphere Fault Tolerance states that would cause the virtual machine to not be protected? (Choose two.)

A. Stopped – Fault Tolerance has been stopped on the secondary virtual machine.

B. Need Secondary VM – The primary virtual machine is running without a secondary virtual machine

and is not protected

C. Need Primary VM – The secondary virtual machine is running, and a new primary virtual machine

cannot be generated.

D. Disabled – Fault Tolerance is disabled.

Answer: BD

QUESTION 4

Which two conditions prevent the application of a host profile to an ESXi 5.x host? (Choose two.)

A. The host has multiple profiles attached.

B. The host has not been placed into maintenance mode.

C. The host is running virtual machines.

D. The host is an ESXi host.

Answer: BC

QUESTION 5

An administrator is editing the IP allocation policy for a vApp.

Which three options are available? (Choose three.)

A. Automatic

B. Roaming

C. Transient

D. DHCP

E. Fixed

Answer: CDE

QUESTION 6

ACME Junkmail Incorporated has been utilizing templates in their environment. They are running a 10-node ESXi 5.x Cluster and DRS has not been configured. Several virtual machines have been deployed from this template and successfully powered on, but a newly deployed virtual machine will not power on. There appear to be adequate CPU and Memory resources available on the host.

Which three things can be done to allow more virtual machines to be deployed into the cluster from this template? (Choose three.)

A. Select a different datastore for the virtual machine

B. Move the swap file to a different location

C. Deploy the virtual machine to a different host using the same datastore

D. Enable DRS on the cluster to balance the virtual machine load out across hosts

E. Increase the virtual machine memory reservation

Answer: ABE

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UM0-100 IT Certification,braindumps,original questions

Posted on June 23, 2013 by admin

UM0-100 IT Certification,braindumps,original questions

Exam Number/Code : UM0-100

Exam Name : Omg-Certified uml professionalfundamental exam

Version : Demo

QUESTION 1

What does an association specify?

A. links between associated types

B. relationship among models

C. tuples that are not links

D. links between instances of untyped classes

E. links between instances of associated types

Answer: E

QUESTION 2

What is true of an interaction?

A. An interaction always contains states and transitions.

B. An interaction can be used as types for ports.

C. An interaction is defined by a use case.

D. The semantics of an interaction are defined by event traces.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3

What can be captured by use cases? (Choose two)

A. changes in state over time of the system

B. data and control flow of the system

C. user-interface specification of the system

D. requirements of the system

E. behaviors offered by the system

Answer: DE

QUESTION 4

What does the symbol in the exhibit represent in UML 2.0 activity diagrams?

A. control node

B. behavior

C. state

D. object node

E. activity

F. action

Answer: D

QUESTION 5

What constraint applies to a stop in a UML interaction diagram?

A. No other event occurrences may appear below a stop on a given lifeline in a

simple interaction.

B. If there is a stop on one lifeline, there should be stops on all other lifelines within

an interaction.

C. Only one stop may occur in one interaction.

D. If one lifeline has a stop in one interaction, it should have stops in every interaction that it appears.

Answer: A

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IT Certification,braindumps,original questions UM0-200

Posted on June 23, 2013 by admin

IT Certification,braindumps,original questions UM0-200

QUESTION NO: 1

What kinds of arrows connect to central buffers?

A. control flows

B. unidirectional associations

C. object flows

D. state transitions

E. message passing

F. dependencies

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2

What does a loop node consist of?

A. clauses

B. partitions

C. parameters

D. bodyPart nodes

E. behaviors

F. guards

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3

What is a combined fragment?

A. more than one interaction combined in an interaction overview diagram

B. an interaction occurrence covering more than one lifeline

C. the combination of decomposed lifelines

D. a construct with interaction operands and an interaction operator

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4

What is NOT true of a CreateObjectAction?

A. classifier must be abstract

B. classifier cannot be abstract

C. classifier cannot be an association class

D. output pin has multiplicity [1..1]

E. type of the output pin is the classifier.

F. output pin has multiplicity [1..*]

Answer: A,F