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QUESTION NO: 1
The VPN termination function provides the ability to connect two networks together securely over the internet. Which of these is true of IP addressing with regard to VPN termination?

A. termination devices need routable addresses inside the VPN
B. termination devices need not routable addresses inside the VPN
C. IGP routing protocols will update their routing tables over an IPsec VPN
D. addressing designs need to allow for summarization

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2
When dealing with transparent caching, where should the Content Engines be placed?

A. close to the servers
B. close to the end users
C. at the Internet edge
D. in front of web server farms
Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of these statements is true of routing protocols in a hub-and-spoke IPsec VPN topology?

A. EIGRP can summarize per interface.
B. OSPF router databases remain independent.
C. When they are configured with stubs, EIGRP regularly floods the topology.
D. OSPF topology decisions are made independent of hierarchy or area.

Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
What is the indication that a Mac has completed a successful power-on self test (POST)?

A. Startup Chime.
B. A series of beeps.
C. The Login Window starts.
D. The Desktop, Dock, and menu bar load.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
You can use a higher wattage power adapter with an Apple portable computer, but you cannot use one with less wattage without potential operating issues.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
What is the proper way to calibrate a removable main battery in a MacBook (13-inch, Mid 2009)?

A. Charge the battery while running the Battery Calibration Utility.
B. The battery is calibrated out of the box; no further steps are needed.
C. Charge the battery overnight. Make sure battery status indicates 100% before disconnecting AC adapter.
D. Charge the battery fully. Wait 2 hours. Run the MacBook on battery until it goes to sleep. Wait 5 hours. Charge it fully again.
E. Charge the battery halfway. Wait 2 hours. Finish charging the battery. Run the MacBook on battery until it goes to sleep. Charge it fully again.

Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 1
During the standard sort and shuffle phase of MapReduce, keys and values are passed to
reducers. Which of the following is true?

A. Keys are presented to a reducer in sorted order; values for a given key are not sorted.
B. Keys are presented to a reducer in soiled order; values for a given key are sorted in ascending order.
C. Keys are presented to a reducer in random order; values for a given key are not sorted.
D. Keys are presented to a reducer in random order; values for a given key are sorted in
ascending order.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2
What is the behavior of the default partitioner?

A. The default partitioner assigns key value pairs to reducers based on an internal random number generator.
B. The default partitioner implements a round robin strategy, shuffling the key value pairs to each reducer in turn. This ensures an even partition of the key space.
C. The default partitioner computes the hash of the key. Hash values between specific ranges are associated with different buckets, and each bucket is assigned to a specific reducer.
D. The default partitioner computes the hash of the key and divides that value modulo the number of reducers. The result determines the reducer assigned to process the key-value pair.
E. The default partitioner computes the hash of the value and takes the mod of that value with the number of reducers. The result determines the reducer assigned to process the key value pair.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which statement best describes the data path of intermediate key-value pairs (i.e., output of the mappers)?

A. Intermediate key-value pairs are written to HDFS. Reducers read the intermediate data from HDFS.
B. Intermediate key-value pairs are written to HDFS. Reducers copy the intermediate data to the local disks of the machines running the reduce tasks.
C. Intermediate key-value pairs are written to the local disks of the machines running the map tasks, and then copied to the machine running the reduce tasks.
D. Intermediate key-value pairs are written to the local disks of the machines running the map tasks, and are then copied to HDFS. Reducers read the intermediate data from HDFS.

Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
The work breakdown structure is ________.

A. Used to break down the project into manageable pieces
B. Set and does not change throughout the project
C. Needed as part of the project charter
D. [Needed as part of the project scope statement

Answer: A

Explanation:
Work Breakdown Structure (WBS): A deliverable-oriented grouping of project elements which organizes and defines the total scope of the project. It sub divide the major tasks to minor details.

QUESTION NO: 2
If a project with a SPI of 1.8, what you tell?

A. The project is running ahead of the schedule
B. The project is running behind of the schedule
C. Resources assigned to the project cost 1.8 units
D. None

Answer: A

Explanation:
The SPI equals the earned value divided by the planned value. SPI = EV/PV A schedule
performance index of 1 or greater suggests that the project is ahead of schedule.

QUESTION NO: 3
You are managing a project that will implement a new MARKETING software package. You have assigned the resources and want to keep the IT manager in the loop by informing him or her of your decisions. Which type of organizational structure are you working in?

A. Pi’ojectized
B. Strong Matrix
C. Weak Matrix
D. Functional

Answer: B

Explanation:
Projectized Organization: Any organizational structure in which the project manager has full authority to assign priorities and to direct the work of individuals assigned to the project. Strong Matrix: The project manager is assigned full time and has a full time support staff. Project manager has the preeminent position of authority. Weak Matrix: Power reset with Functional Manager.
Functional: In this organization Project Manager has least power and all management is taken care by functional manager like marketing engineer, sales engineer.

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QUESTION NO: 1
Where should the following information be stored?
1. The experience of staff
2. Records of user behaviour
3. Supplier’s abilities and requirements
4. User skill levels

A. The forward schedule of change
B. The service portfolio
C. A configuration management database (CMDB)
D. The service knowledge management system (SKMS)

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following statements about standard changes are CORRECT?
1. The approach is pre-authorized
2. The risk is usually low and well understood
3. Details of the change will be recorded
4. Some standard changes will be triggered by the request fulfilment process

A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which one of the following provides the CORRECT list of processes within the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?

A. Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfilment, and access management
B. Event management, incident management, change management, and access management
C. Incident management, problem management, service desk, request fulfilment, and event management
D. Incident management, service desk, request fulfilment, access management, and event management

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Several computer resources displayed within the Active Directory Organizational View were previously removed from Microsoft Active Directory organizational units. An Active Directory import is scheduled to run weekly. Which action can the administrator take to remove these computer resources automatically from the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)?

A. create and enable an automation policy that removes these computer resources
B. create a resource filter that contains these computers and delete them all at once from the filter
C. enable the Directory Synchronization Schedule console option on the Active Directory Import page
D. create and enable a server task to run a SQL query to remove the computer resources

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Corporate IT policy states that lab machines used for testing purposes must be part of the ‘Lab’ workgroup rather than a production domain. Which discovery method allows the administrator to limit discovery so that only domain computers are discovered?

A. Network Discovery
B. Domain Membership/WINS
C. Active Directory Import
D. Windows Management Import

Answer: C

QUESTION 3
In which two ways are the Default and Active Directory organizational views different from administrator-created views? (Select two.)

A. different numbers of resources allowed in a group
B. automatic assignment of resources without active policies
C. ability to use groups within Resource Targets
D. ability to add new groups
E. security assignments

Answer: BD

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QUESTION NO: 1
You want to ensure that all traffic arriving on interface fe-0/0/0.0 will be routed to next-hop
10.1.1.1, regardless of the more specific routes that might appear in the routing table. How can you accomplish this configuration?

A. Configure a default route with a next hop of 10.1.1.1 and configure the always-use flag for the route.
B. Configure and apply a firewall filter that sends all traffic to a routing instance, configure a default route in that routing instance, and configure the router to install interface routes in that routing instance.
C. Configure a routing policy that matches all traffic and sets the next hop to 10.1.1.1, and
configure a RIB group to ensure that the routing policy can resolve the next hop to 10.1.1.1.
D. Configure a firewall filter that matches all traffic and sets the next hop to 10.1.1.1, apply the firewall filter to a RIB group, and assign the fe-0/0/0.0 interface to that RIB group.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2
Which statement describes the operation of a stub area?

A. A stub area receives only a default route.
B. A stub area receives all routes from all other areas.
C. A stub area receives no external routes from other areas.
D. A stub area is automatically configured based on the presence of the E-bit in the hello
messages sent from the ABR.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
Which configuration allows the virtual IP address to respond to pings?

A. [edit interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 50 family inet address 192.168.0.12/24]
user@RouterA# show
vrrp-group 50 {
virtual-address 192.168.0.1;
fast-interval 250;
preempt;
accept-data;
}
B. [edit interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 50 family inet address 192.168.0.12/24]
user@RouterA# show
vrrp-group 50 {
virtual-address 192.168.0.1;
fast-interval 250;
no-preempt;
no-accept-data;
}
C. [edit interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 50 family inet address 192.168.0.12/24]
user@RouterA# show
vrrp-group 50 {
virtual-address 192.168.0.1;
fast-interval 250;
accept-icmp;
}
D. [edit interfaces fe-0/0/0 unit 50 family inet address 192.168.0.12/24]
user@RouterA# show
vrrp-group 50 {
virtual-address 192.168.0.1;
priority 220;
advertise-interval 10;
preempt;
accept-packets;
}

Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
Why is IBM Maximo the best solution for the Nuclear Industry?

A. It provides ERP solution
B. it provides owners, operators and maintainers of nuclear power plants best practices to help improve the productivity and efficiency of their critical assets.
C. It integrates with Primavera
D. It can save energy for Nuclear Power Plants

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2
What are new features you can find in Maximo for Utilities 7.1.1?

A. Scheduler for crews and calculator for accounts
B. Calibration capabilities and configuration management capabilities
C. Supply Chain management
D. CU Estimating. Service Address Tab, and Scheduler for crews

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
What is a Smart Asset?

A. An asset that is intelligent
B. An asset that is instrumented, interconnected, and intelligent
C. An asset that can receive instructions from human.
D. An asset that never needs a service

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4
Which following product is a prerequisite for IBM Maximo Spatial Asset Management?

A. Both WebSphere and WebLogic
B. Either WebSphere or WebLogic
C. Oracle
D. IBM Maximo Asset Management v6x
Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 1
Identify the true statements regarding Supporting Detail. Select all that apply.

A. Importing Supporting Detail from Excel is supported.
B. Supporting Detail must be entered cell by cell; entry for multiple columns at once is not possible
C. Supporting Detail can contain a hierarchy with an aggregation of values for that hierarchy.
D. Supporting Detail can be viewed using the Smart View Add-in Essbase Provider.
E. Supporting Detail is stored in Essbase.

Answer: A,C,D,E

Explanation: A: To add supporting detail that calculates values in a data form:
1 Open a data form in Excel,
2 In the data form, select the data cells for which you want to add detail.
3 Select Hyperion > Supporting Detail. For Office 2007, click Supporting Detail in the Task section of the Hyperion ribbon.
4 Etc.
7. Enter data for the items for which you want to set or calculate values.
When you enter numbers into the Supporting Detail window, use the scaling that was set up for the data values in the data form.
8 Click OK.
Values are dynamically calculated and aggregated before the data is saved.
C: Supporting detail can include text, values, and operators that define how data aggregates.
Supporting detail also provides a way to drill down into data to better understand its basis. For example, if the bottom-level member in your outline is pens, you can add line items in supporting detail for ballpoint, fountain, marker, and so on. Then you can aggregate the detail values to the pen member in the outline.
D:Oracle Hyperion Smart View for Office (Excel, PowerPoint, Word, and Outlook), are some of the various Oracle tools that enable users to interact with an Oracle Essbase application.
Oracle Hyperion Smart View for Office (Smart View) is a component of Hyperion Foundation Services. Smart View provides a common Microsoft Office interface designed specifically for Oracle’s Enterprise Performance Management (EPM) and Business Intelligence (BI). Using Smart View, you can view, import, manipulate, distribute and share data in Microsoft Excel, Word and PowerPoint interfaces. It is a comprehensive tool for accessing and integrating EPM and BI content from Microsoft Office products.
E: In Planning applications, when you delete supporting detail for a cell, you affect the associated value in the relational database. You specify how to handle the stored Essbase value.
Note (on A and E): To synchronize supporting detail with Essbase:
1 Open a data form in Excel
2 In the data form, click the cell that has the supporting detail you want to remove.
3 Select Hyperion > Supporting Detail. For Office 2007, click Supporting Detail in the Task section of the Hyperion ribbon.
4 In the Supporting Detail window, delete the information, then click OK.
5 Select an option from the displayed message to specify how to handle the aggregate value of the deleted
supporting detail stored in Essbase:
To delete the value from Essbase, click Yes, set the value(s) to #Missing.
To leave the data value in Essbase as is, click No, leave the value(s) as is.

QUESTION NO: 2
Given the following:
Measures (Dense): 40 stored members, 50 total members
Time (Dense): 17 stored members, 17 total members
Scenario (Dense): 2 stored members, 5 total members
Market (Sparse): 100 stored members, 100 total members
Product (Sparse): 500 stored members, 550 total members
How many potential blocks could be created?

A. Potential Blocks = 40 * 17*2
B. Potential Blocks = 40* 17*2*8
C. Potential Blocks = 100 * 500
D. Potential Blocks = 100 * 500 * 8
E. Potential Blocks = 100 * 550
F. Potential Blocks = 100 * 550 * 8

Answer: C

Explanation: The number of stored members in sparse Dimensions will help us in finding
potential number of blocks
Potential Number of Blocks = Stored Members in Market * Stored Products in Scenario.

QUESTION NO: 3
What option contributes to making an Enhanced Calc Script more flexible than a native Essbase
Calc Script?

A. Run on Save
B. @CALCMODE function
C. Run time prompts
D. Can be run over the web
E. Substitution Variables
F. Custom Defined Functions

Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
You are a project manager with a required monthly update cycle. You have marked actual start and actual finish dates for your Physical % complete activities, with % complete calculated from activity steps. You schedule and summarize your project plans. However, your activities are not showing 100% complete. What is the problem?

A. Your security does not allow you to update Activity Status.
B. You did not save the changes made to the activities.
C. You have not completed each of the activity steps.
D. You must refresh the view in the web to view the changes.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2
You are creating a new portfolio scenario. You are attempting to save it for all users, but the selection is unavailable (grayed out).
What is the cause?

A. You have insufficient global security privileges.
B. You have Insufficient project security privileges.
C. You have insufficient portfolio security privileges.
D. You have insufficient user security privileges.

Answer: A

Explanation: Global profiles:
Define a user’s access to application-wide information and settings, such as the enterprise project structure (EPS), resources, roles, and cost accounts. Each user must be assigned a global profile.

QUESTION NO: 3
Your customer wants to take advantage of capacity planning in portfolios. The customer would like to use generic resources, because they have greater flexibility to respond to changing costs by resource by location. In fact, they would prefer not to set up any roles at all in the database, because they perceive generic resources and roles to be duplicate effort. What would an appropriate response be to this customer?

A. Use generic resources in Capacity Planning view, because they have greater ability to respond to changing costs.
B. User generic resources for project financials, and mirrored roles for capacity planning.
C. Use roles for planning and project financials to eliminate duplicate data maintenance.
D. Integrate with HR systems to obtain automated generic resource pricing updates.

Answer: B

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