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QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following is an indication of acceptable storage array performance?

A. High cache hit ratio
B. Low MTTF
C. Low buffer-to-buffer credits
D. High I/O wait

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
When setting up replication for application spanning multiple LUNs, which of the following
replication features should be utilized?

A. Clone
B. Snapshot
C. Semi-synchronous Replication
D. Consistency Group

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following is the difference between a Tape Library and a Tape Auto-loader?

A. A Tape Library supports a tape access door.
B. A Tape Library supports multiple tape drives.
C. A Tape Library supports a tape robot.
D. A Tape Library supports multiple tapes.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following requires a MINIMUM of three drives and can survive the loss of up to any two drives?

A. RAID 1
B. RAID 0+1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5
An IP-based datacenter is adding SCSI tape and disk assets to be used by multiple servers.
Which of the following will need to be added?

A. Router
B. Bridge
C. GiGE switch
D. 10/100 switch

Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
A customer requires an HP FlexCampus solution with a core that scales to 40/100G. Which HP switch fabric meets this need?

A. the 7500′s CLOS switch fabric
B. the 10500′s CLOS switch fabric
C. the 7500′s crossbar switch fabric
D. the 10500′s crossbar switch fabric

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2
What is the role of neighbor solicitation (NS) messages in the autoconfiguration of an IPv6
address?

A. An IPv6 node sends an NS message to inform a node undergoing autoconfiguration that it is already using a particular address.
B. An IPv6 node sends an NS message for its tentative address to determine whether another node is using it.
C. An IPv6 node sends an NS message for the global prefix to prompt other IPv6 nodes to
advertise the addresses that they are using on that prefix.
D. An IPv6 node sends an NS message to prompt an IPv6 router on the link to advertise the global prefixes associated with the link immediately.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
Which switch is best suited to act at the edge of a medium to large HP FlexFabric solution?

A. 10500
B. 5500
C. 9500
D. 5830

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
How can a high density of ports and high throughput at the core of an HP FlexNetwork save customers money?

A. Intelligence is offloaded from the edge switches, enabling customers to save money on the most numerous switches in their solutions.
B. The customer can combine the data center and campus LAN core into a single entity, reducing power and cooling costs.
C. The customer no longer needs to deploy modular switches at the distribution level and the edge, deploying more cost-effective stackable switches instead.
D. The architecture can be simplified, eliminating expensive distribution devices and reducing power and cooling costs.

Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 1
A storage administrator does not have enough storage to fill the demands of the DBA team, but knows that their demands will exceed their actual requirement.
Which type of volumes could the storage administrator provide them as a solution?

A. thin provisioned
B. snap reserve
C. FlexShare
D. traditional

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
Which statement is true about mixed mode qtrees?

A. A file with UNIX permissions cannot be updated with a Windows ACL.
B. A file can have both UNIX and Windows permissions.
C. A file permission is either UNIX or Windows.
D. Qtree security style is permanent once set.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
SnapManagerfor Oracle, SnapManager for SQL Server, and SnapManager for Exchange are all part of which NetApp Manageability Software suite?

A. Data Suite
B. Server Suite
C. Storage Suite
D. Application Suite

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
The NetApp DataFort platforms can encrypt data _____. (Choose three.)

A. to CIFS shares on a FAS Controller
B. toiSCSI LUNs on a FAS Controller
C. to aSnapMirror destination
D. to a virtual tape drive on aNearStore VTL
E. from an Open SystemsSnapVault client to NearStore on FAS
F. from an NDMP client toNearStore on FAS

Answer: A,B,D

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QUESTION NO: 1
You observe that a database performance has degraded over a period of time. While investigating the reason, you find that the size of the database buffer cache is not large enough to cache all the needed data blocks. Which advisory component would you refer to, in order to determine that required size of the database buffer cache?

A. Memory Advisor
B. Segment Advisor
C. SQL Tuning Advisor
D. SQL Access Advisor
E. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
Exhibit
In your production database, the total waits and the time waited for log file parallel write are significantly high. While investigating the reason, you find that there are three redo log groups with two members in each group, and all redo log members are places on a single physical disk. What action would you take to minimize the waits?

A. start the log writer slave processes
B. increase the number of redoes log files
C. increase the size of the redo log buffer
D. place the redo log files on the different disks
E. increase the number of log writer processes

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
One of the tablespaces is read-only in your database. The loss of all control files forced you to recreate the control file. Which operation do you need to perform after re-creating the control file and opening the database?

A. drop and re-create the read-onlytablespaces
B. rename the read-only data files to their correct file names
C. change thetablespace status from read/write to read-only
D. re-create the read-only tablespace because it is automatically removed

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4
You have set some of the initialization parameters as:
DB_BLOCK_SIZE = 8KB
SGA_MAX_SIZE = 2GB
SGA_TARGET = 0
SHARED_POOL_SIZE = 120MB
DB_CACHE_SIZE = 896MB
STREAM_POOL_SIZE = 0
LARGE_POOL_SIZE = 110 MB
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. You cannot set a value for the DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE parameter.
B. If you increase the size of the large pool to 120 MB, then the memory allocated to the shared poll will be reduced to 110 MB.
C. If the value for SGA_TARGET is changed to 1 GB and SHARED_POOL_SIZE is set to 120 MB, then memory cannot be taken from the shared pool, even if the shared pool has free space available.
D. If an application attempts to allocate more than 120 MB from the shared pool and free space is available in the buffer pool, then the free space from the buffer pool is allocated to the shared pool.

Answer: A,C

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1Z0-820 Upgrade to Oracle Solaris 11 System Administrator Exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION NO: 1
Identify the two security features incorporated in the Oracle Solaris 11 Cryptographic Framework.

A. Layer 5 IP address encryptions
B. Internet protocol security
C. Diffie-Kerberos coaxial key encryption
D. Signed cryptographic plugins (providers)
E. Kernel support for signed antivirus plugins

Answer: D,E

Explanation:
The framework enables providers of cryptographic services to have their services
used by many consumers in the Oracle Solaris operating system. Another name for providers is plugins. The framework allows three types of plugins:
* User-level plugins-Shared objects that provide services by using PKCS #11 libraries, such as pkcs11_softtoken.so.1.
* Kernel-level plugins-Kernel modules that provide implementations of cryptographic algorithms in software, such as AES.
Many of the algorithms in the framework are optimized for x86 with the SSE2 instruction set and for SPARC hardware.
* Hardware plugins-Device drivers and their associated hardware accelerators. The Niagara chips, the ncp and n2cp device drivers, are one example. A hardware accelerator offloads expensive cryptographic functions from the operating system. The Sun Crypto Accelerator 6000 board is one example.
Reference: Oracle Solaris Cryptographic Framework

http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E19963-01/html/821-1456/scf-10.html

QUESTION NO: 2
Review the ZFS dataset output that is displayed on your system:
Which four correctly describe the output?

A. /data/file4 has been added.
B. The link /data/file3 has been added.
C. /data/file3 has been renamed to /data/file13.
D. /data/file4 has been modified and is now larger.
E. /data/file1 has been deleted.
F. /data/file1 has been modified and is now smaller.
G. /data/file5 has been modified.
H. /data/file3 (a link) has been removed.

Answer: A,C,E,G

Explanation:
A: + Indicates the file/directory was added in the later dataset
C:R Indicates the file/directory was renamed in the later dataset
E: – Indicates the file/directory was removed in the later dataset
G: M Indicates the file/directory was modified in the later dataset
Note:Identifying ZFS Snapshot Differences (zfs diff)
You can determine ZFS snapshot differences by using the zfs diff command.
The following table summarizes the file or directory changes that are identified by the zfs diff command.
File or Directory Change Identifier
* File or directory is modified or file or directory link changed
M
* File or directory is present in the older snapshot but not in the newer snapshot

* File or directory is present in the newer snapshot but not in the older snapshot
+
* File or directory is renamed
R

QUESTION NO: 3
Which five statements describe options available for installing the Oracle Solaris 11operating system using the installation media?

A. You can perform a text or LiveCD installation locally or over the network.
B. The text Installer does not install the GNOME desktop. The GNOME desktop package must he added after you have installed the operating system.
C. The LiveCD Installation cannot be used to install multiple instances of Oracle Solaris.
D. The LiveCD installer cannot be used if you need to preserve a specific Solaris Volume Table of Contents (VTOC) slice in your current operating system.
E. The LiveCD Installer is for x86 platforms only.
F. The GUI installer cannot be used to upgrade your operating system from Solaris 10.
G. If you are installing Oracle Solaris 11 on an x86-based system that will have more than one operating system installed in it, you cannot partition your disk during the installation process.
H. The LiveCD installer can be used for SPARC or x86 platforms.

Answer: A,B,D,F

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QUESTION NO: 1
A customer wants to replicate a CIFS environment from a legacy EMC Celerra to a new EMCVNX. Users are able to access CIFS shares from both arrays. The CIFS shares are on different networks and replication is not running. The customer wants to make sure there will be no network restrictions preventing replication between the data movers on two different networks.
What TCP ports should they ask the network team to open?

A. 8888, 8887, 5081
B. 80, 443, 8080
C. 5057, 445, 5087
D. 23, 25, 22

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
A customer recently upgraded from vSphere v4.x to vSphere v5.0 to benefit from new VMFS-5 features for their existing ‘DataStore1’ and ‘DataStore2’ datastores on an EMC VNX. A second identically configured VNX was implemented and the customer created two additional datastores on the new VNX.
After monitoring the environment, the customer notices the VMs on ‘ DataStore1 ’ and ‘ DataStore2 ’ are not using the same sub-block structure as the two new datastores.
What is the reason for this behavior?

A. The old VMs are on an upgraded VMFS-5 datastore.
B. The old VMs are still running old VMware tools.
C. The new VMFS-5 features need to be licensed and activated.
D. The new VMFS-5 cannot support two VNX storage systems.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
A storage administrator reports they are unable configure SAN Copy connections between two VNX. The required cabling is in place and zoning is correct, but the SP connections still do not appear in Unisphere Manager. What could have caused this issue?

A. SAN Copy is not installed on both VNX arrays.
B. SAN Copy is only licensed for local copies.
C. The SP ports are already being used by hosts.
D. Both VNX arrays are not in the same domain.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
A Pool used for FAST VP has the following configuration:
Flash drives: 1,000 GB, with 1,000 GB free
SAS drives: 5,000 GB, with 2,500 GB free
NL-SAS drives: 20,000 GB, with 11,500 GB free
The tiering policy is set to Auto. An additional 600 GB of new data is written to the Pool.
What is the data distribution after the data is written?

A. Flash drives: 960 GB free SAS drives: 2,400 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,040 GB free
B. Flash drives: 400 GB free SAS drives: 2,500 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,500 GB free
C. Flash drives: 900 GB free SAS drives: 2,000 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,500 GB free
D. Flash drives: 970 GB free SAS drives: 2,350 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,080GB free

Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following is a public IP address?

A. 10.0.0.1
B. 62.10.1.1
C. 172.16.0.1
D. 192.168.1.1

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following ports MUST be open to connect to a PC using RDP?

A. 21
B. 80
C. 443
D. 3389

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following is the MAXIMUM transfer speed of USB 2.0?

A. 100 Mbps
B. 400 Mbps
C. 420 Mbps
D. 480 Mbps

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following display connections has 15-pins?

A. RGB
B. VGA
C. DVI
D. HDMI

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following connector types is only used for Coaxial?

A. RJ-11
B. ST
C. F
D. RJ-45

Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
A user is having trouble connecting to the Internet. Which of the following commands should a technician use, from the user’s workstation, to ensure that the workstation has a valid IP address?

A. NETSTAT
B. PING
C. IPCONFIG
D. TRACERT

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following operating systems supports full BitLocker functionality?

A. Windows XP
B. Windows 7 Professional
C. Windows Vista Home
D. Windows 7 Enterprise

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following protocols could a technician use to connect a smartphone to an email server? (Select TWO).

A. SMTP
B. POP3
C. HTTP
D. SNTP
E. ICMP

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following should a technician do FIRST to secure a mobile device?

A. Assign a passcode
B. Download updates
C. Disable GPS
D. Install antivirus

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5
When running Windows XP, which of the following would give a list of switches for the CHKDSK command?

A. chkdsk ~?
B. chkdsk :?
C. chkdsk /?
D. chkdsk \?

Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
What is the default value for the RIP garbagetime setting?

A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 180 seconds

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
Given router interfaces 10.0.0.1/24, 10.10.10.10/24, 192.168.0.1/24, and
192.168.255.254/24 on a Summit7i switch what will be the OSPF router ID given the
following command: config ospf routerid automatic?

A. 10.0.0.1/24
B. 10.10.10.10/24
C. 192.168.0.1/24
D. 192.168.255.254/24

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which command would you use to configure VLAN corporate with IP address
192.168.0.1/16?

A. config vlan corporate ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16
B. config ipaddress corporate vlan 192.168.0.1/16
C. config ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16 vlan corporate
D. config ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16 corporate vlan

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4
VLAN aggregation allows multiple sub-VLANs to share a single IP subnet.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5
How do you disable Split Horizon?

A. disable rip splithorizon noadvertise
B. unconfig rip splithorizon
C. disable rip splithorizon
D. unconfig rip splithorizon noadvertise

Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
What is the correct communication object type and attribute for creating an Enterprise Extender connection to another system?

A. A controller type *EE
B. A controller type *HPR
C. A virtual device type *EE
D. A virtual device type *HPR

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
A customer has a Power 520, serial number 10-12345. It is one of several systems managed by an HMC running Version 7 firmware at TCP/IP address 10.0.0.100. Which of the following describes how to produce a system plan for this system in file MYPLAN.sysplan?

A. Select system plans from left panel, then select Create System Plan.
In the pop-up window, fill in system plan name and description, click OK.
B. Select ‘Service Applications’ on the HMC and click the Create System Plan option.
In the pop-up window, click the line with 9406-520*1012345, and specify file MYPLAN in the file name prompt.
C. Launch SPT and click ‘Create New Plan.’
On the next panel, click the ‘Open an Existing System Plan.’
In the file prompt, specify https://10.0.0.100/sysplan.
After the system plan is loaded from the HMC, save to file MYPLAN.
D. Select ‘System Plans’ on the HMC, and then click the ‘Import…’ button.
On the pop-up window, click the line with 9406-520*1012345.
When the import completes, click the ‘Save…’ button and specify file MYPLAN in the file name prompt.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
An administrator has been directed to create a new DNS server instance named ‘ABC’ on an IBM i 6.1 partition. Which of the following overviews correctly describe how to do this?

A. Open a browser to IBM Systems Director Navigator for IBMi on the partition.
Navigate to Network > Server > DNS.
Select the ‘create’ action and follow the prompts.
B. From a command line, run the CRTTCPDNS command to create the ABC instance definition.
Use SEU to edit QUSRSYS/QDNSTBL(ABC) to edit the DNS records for the instance.
C. In System i Navigator, under the system to host the DNS, navigate to Network > Servers > DNS.
Right-click on DNS, then select ‘New Name Server’.
Follow the prompts.
D. From a command line, use STRQSH to start the PASE command prompt
Run the script: crdns -n ABC.
Use the Edit File (EDTF) command on IFS file /QIBM/UserData/OS400/DNS/ABC.TBL to enter the new DNS records.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following recovery limit settings allows a communications line to make infinite
recovery attempts?

A. Recovery limit attempts (0), Time interval in minutes (1)
B. Recovery limit attempts (1), Time interval in minutes (0)
C. Recovery limit attempts (*NOMAX), Time interval in minutes (0)
D. Recovery limit attempts (0), Time interval in minutes (*NOMAX)

Answer: B

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