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PW0-105 Certified Wireless Network Administrator (CWNA)

QUESTION NO: 1
Given: Your consulting firm has recently been hired to complete a site survey for ABC Company.
Your engineers use predictive modeling software for surveying, but ABC Company insists on a pre-deployment site visit.
What tasks should be performed as part of the pre-deployment visit to prepare for a predictive survey? (Choose two)

A. With a spectrum analyzer, identify the type, amplitude, and location of RF interference sources, if any are present.
B. Evaluate the building materials at ABC’s facility and confirm that the floor plan documents are consistent with the actual building.
C. Validate that the AP transmit power and antenna type is identical for each AP in ABC’s existing deployment.
D. Collect information about ABC Company’s security requirements and the current configuration of their RADIUS and user database servers.
E. Simultaneously capture and analyze data on each 802.11 channel to establish a baseline for potential network capacity and throughput.

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 2
What 802.11n technologies require MIMO support on both the transmitter and receiver? (Choose 2)

A. Spatial multiplexing
B. Transmit beamforming
C. Maximal ratio combining
D. Space-time block coding
E. Cyclic shift diversity
F. Short guard intervals

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 3
What statement describes the authorization component of a AAA implementation?

A. Verifying that a user is who he says he is
B. Validating client device credentials against a database
C. Logging the details of user network behavior in order to review it at a later time
D. Granting access to specific network services according to a user profile
E. Implementing a WIPS as a full-time monitoring solution to enforce policies

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
What facts are true regarding controllers and APs in a Split MAC architecture? (Choose 2)

A. An IP tunnel is established between the AP and controller for AP management and control functions.
B. Using centralized data forwarding, APs never tag Ethernet frames with VLAN identifiers or 802.1p CoS.
C. With 802.1X/EAP security, the AP acts as the supplicant and the controller acts as the
authenticator.
D. Management and data frame types must be processed locally by the AP, while control frame types must be sent to the controller.
E. In a distributed (local bridging) data forwarding model, the AP handles frame encryption and decryption.

Answer: A,E

PW0-204 Certified Wireless Security Professional (CWSP)

QUESTION NO: 1
In an effort to optimize WLAN performance ABC Company has already upgraded their infrastructure from 802 11b/gto802 11n. ABC has always been highly security conscious but they are concerned with security threats introduced by incompatibilities between 802.11n and 802.11a/g in the past.ABC has performed manual and automated scans with products that were originally designed for use in 802 11a/g networks.Including laptop-based spectrum and protocol analyzers as well as an overlay 802 11a/g WIPS solution.ABC has sought your input to understand and respond to potential security threats.
In ABC’s network environment, what type of devices would be capable of identifying rouge APs that use HT Greenfield 40 MHZ channels? (Choose 3)

A. 802.11n WPS sensor with a single 2×2 radio
B. The company’s current laptop-based protocol analysis tools
C. WIPS solution that is integrated in the company’s AP infrastructure
D. The company’s current overlay WIPS solution
E. The company’s current laptop-based spectrum analysis tools

Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION NO: 2
Given:A new Access point is connected to an authorized network segment and is detected
wirelessly by a WIPS.
By what method does the WIPS apply a security classification to newly discovered AP?

A. According to the location service profile
B. According to the SNMP MIB table
C. According to the RADIUS rectum attribute
D. According to the site survey template
E. According to the default security policy

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

What elements should be addressed by a WLAN security policy? (Choose 2)

A. Verification that administrative passwords are unique to each infrastructure device
B. Enabling encryption to prevent MAC addresses from being sent in clear text
C. Security policy details should be safeguarded from non IT employees to prevent vulnerability exposure
D. End user training for password selection and acceptable network use
E. Social engineering recognition and mitigation technique.

Answer: D,E

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MB6-700 Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 R2 Project

QUESTION: 1
You need to track the project costs in balance accounts until the customer is
invoiced. Which type of project should you use?

A. fixed-price project with completed contract
B. fixed-price project with completed percentage and sales value
C. time and material project with work in process (WIP)
D. internal project with work in process (WIP)
E. time and material projects with accruals

Answer: C

QUESTION: 2
You set up a new internal project. You need to manually create a hierarchical
representation of the activities for the project. Which form should you use?

A. Activities
B. Assign resources
C. Work breakdown structure template
D. Work breakdown structure

Answer: D

QUESTION: 3
You set up three pay-when-paid (PWP) terms and assign them to the vendors for a
project. For the first PWP term, you set the account code for all vendors (All). For
the second PWP term, you set the account code for an individual vendor (Table).
For the third PWP term, you set the account code for a group of vendors (Group).
What is the order of precedence for assigning the PWP terms when you create a
project purchase order?

A. Table, All, Group
B. All, Group, Table
C. Table, Group, All
D. All, Table, Group

Answer: C

QUESTION: 4
You configure a timesheet workflow. What is the Assignment function used to
define?

A. conditions for approval of the timesheet
B. notifications after approval of a timesheet
C. submitters of the timesheet
D. reviewers of the timesheet

Answer: D

MB6-889 Dynamics AX 2012 Service Management

QUESTION: 1
You are reviewing a service order to determine whether it is in compliance with the
associated service level agreement. What does the Compliance value shown in the service order header represent?

A. The number of hours of work completed on the service order.
B. The percentage of hours remaining compared to the limit of the service level agreement.
C. The percentage of hours completed on the service order compared to the limit of the
service level agreement.
D. The number of hours remaining within the limit of the service level agreement.

Answer: C

QUESTION: 2
You are configuring service level agreements in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012.
What is the purpose of the Calendar setting on a service level agreement?

A. To determine whether a service order can be automatically created for the service
agreement
B. To determine the start time of an incoming service order.
C. To determine the sign-off date of an incoming service order.
D. To determine whether the status of an incoming service order will be set to Started.

Answer: A

QUESTION: 3
You suspend a service level agreement (SLA) in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012.
What is the result?

A. The SLA cannot be assigned to service agreements or service agreement groups.
B. The SLA cannot be assigned to service agreements but can be assigned to service
agreement groups
C. The SLA cannot be assigned to service agreements but can be assigned to service
orders.
D. The SLA cannot be assigned to service agreements or service orders.

Answer: A

QUESTION: 4
Which of the following is a result of cancelling the service level agreement on a service
order in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012?

A. The service order is signed off.
B. The status is set to blank.
C. The time recording records are deleted.
D. The service stage is set to Cancel.

Answer: C

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MB3-700 Microsoft Dynamics GP 2013 Installation & Configuration

QUESTION: 1
Which network protocol is required by Microsoft Dynamics GP?

A. Named Pipes
B. Shared Memory
C. Virtual Interface Adapter (VIA)
D. TCP/IP

Answer: D

QUESTION: 2
Which two SQL Server features are required for Microsoft Dynamics GP? (Each
correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A. Database Engine Services
B. Client Tools Connectivity
C. Integration Services
D. Data Quality Client

Answer: A, B

Explanation:
Next select the required features. For Microsoft Dynamics GP select the Database
Engine Services (A) and and Client Tools Connectivity (B) from the Shared
Features list.

QUESTION: 3
Which two statements regarding using Terminal Server and virtualization with
Microsoft Dynamics GP are true? (Each correct answer presents a complete
solution. Choose two.)

A. Software virtualization is not supported.
B. Remote Desktop Services is supported in a WAN environment.
C. RAM requirements are less in a virtual environment.
D. Terminal Server is supported only for Microsoft Dynamics GP clients.

Answer: B, D

QUESTION: 4
A company initializes the system database and creates the company database by
using Microsoft Dynamics GP Utilities. Which two items can be changed? (Each
correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A. Account Framework
B. Company Database ID
C. Account Format
D. Company Name

Answer: A, D

MB5-700 Microsoft Dynamics C5 2012 Application Consultant

QUESTION: 1
Which command will launch the Microsoft Dynamics C5 native application
and display the c5Menu.OWN menu?

A. C5W32.exe -mOWN
B. C5W32.exe/OWN
C. C5W32.exe -menuOWN
D. C5W32.exe –OWNmenu

Answer: C

QUESTION: 2
Which statement about the Print2Office functionality is true?

A. Only invoices and credit notes can be sent as PDF attachments to email
messages.
B. Reports cannot be sent as PDF attachments to email messages.
C. Only reports saved in the Invoice/ Document journals on customers and
vendors can be sent as PDF attachments to email messages.
D. All reports can be sent as PDF attachments to email messages.

Answer: A

QUESTION: 3
You have a file that contains an account number and email addresses for all
customers. You must use the file to ensure that an email address is entered in the
Customers table for each customer. You add the account number and email
address to the fields list in the Data manipulation dialog box. Which value should
you select for the Action property?

A. INSERT
B. IMPORT/UPDATE
C. UPDATE
D. DELETE

Answer: C

QUESTION: 4
You use the Report generator to create a report that includes the name and email
address of alt customers. Which field type should you specify for the customer
name and email address?

A. DB
B. REAL
C. BLANK
D. STR

Answer: A

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LOT-409 IBM Notes and Domino 9.0 Social Edition Application  Development A

QUESTION NO: 1
In IBM LotusScript, which NotesDocument class property can be used to find the owner of a lock on a document?

A. LockHolders
B. DatabaseLock
C. DocumentLock
D. WhoIsLockHolder

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
Grayson created an application that is deployed on servers and with local replicas on individual user workstations. What feature of IBM Notes can limit the data deployed to local replicas?

A. Managed Replicas
B. Database Encryption
C. Master Database Templates
D. Selective Replication Formula

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
In which file are XPages application runtime configuration settings saved?

A. notes.ini
B. jsf.properties
C. xsp.properties
D. application.properties

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
Daniel wants to programmatically use the full text indexing features of IBM Domino. Which fields can be indexed by default?

A. rich text fields
B. access control list entries
C. fields in external databases
D. fields containing a summary flag

Answer: D

LOT-412 IBM Notes Traveler Administration

QUESTION NO: 1
Which option describes how a load balancer is used for an IBM Notes Traveler High Availability (HA) implementation?

A. secures connections between Notes Traveler servers and IBM Domino mail servers
B. spreads the user to server connections across multiple Notes Traveler HA Pool members
C. balances mail server traffic between Notes Traveler servers and clustered Domino mail servers
D. spreads large amounts of data across multiple Notes Traveler servers when users are
synchronizing a large attachment to a device

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2
Once IBM Notes Traveler servers are put into production, what average percentage should the CPU be below?

A. 65
B. 75
C. 85
D. 95

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
What is the minimum number of servers recommended for an IBM Notes Traveler 9.0 Service Pool, IBM Domino mail and database server with high availability for all components on Microsoft Windows or Linux platforms?

A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 11

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
IBM Notes Traveler mobile client to server traffic is secured over which protocol?

A. Secure Socket Layer (SSL)
B. Post Office Protocol 3 (POP3)
C. HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
D. Notes Remote Procedure Call (NRPC)

Answer: A

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HP2-E60 Selling HP Cloud,Converged Systems and Services

QUESTION NO: 1
What do analysts predict is the future direction of virtualization?

A. Applications will become load-balanced workloads with full lifecycle management across multiple virtual machines.
B. Virtual applications will be replaced by self-service applications in the data center.
C. Virtual machines will move from clusters of physical machines to virtual grid computing with shared computerresources.
D. Virtual machines will slow in the enterprise, but virtual applications will grow in the cloud.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
Approximately 50% of IT executives state that security is one of their single largest barriers for cloud adoption.
With which three security resources does an HP hybrid cloud integrate seamlessly, to address these executives’ concerns? (Select three.)

A. Fortify
B. ArcSight
C. TippingPoint
D. OnGuard Online
E. Insight Remote Support
F. ProtectTools

Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION NO: 3
Which two benefits can HP CloudSystem Matrix provide to customers? (Select two.)

A. automatically redistribute resources
B. provide the ability to assign resources in hours
C. automatically repair down resources
D. provide faster time to market

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 4
The CIO of a communications company plans to use virtualization and cloud technologies to enable the company to scale and adapt quickly to changing business needs. However, the CIO has concerns that moving to the cloud will prevent them from meeting their aggressive targets and keeping pace with their competitors.
How should you respond to the CIO’s concerns?

A. Recommend an upgrade to redundant components to eliminate downtime in the data center.
B. Advise the CIO to schedule implementation of cloud technologies after they meet their targets.
C. Explain that rapid innovation in cloud technologies affects all business equally.
D. Offer HP Education Services to help train IT staff to work in the cloud environment.

Answer: D

HP5-H04D Delta-Technical Essentials of HP Workstations

QUESTION NO: 1
Which market segment is targeted for HP Z230 workstations?

A. Oil and gas
B. Home office
C. Small retail
D. Education

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
What does a blinking red power button indicate on an HP Z series workstation?

A. The power supply is in an error state.
B. The computer is turned on.
C. The computer is in an error state.
D. The computer is in sleep mode.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
Which convenience does an HP Z230 tower workstation offer to a university astronomy professor who uses an HP ElitePad 900 tablet to demonstrate ideas as a guest lecturer?

A. 92% efficient 400-Watt power supply
B. Compact and flexible charging port
C. Slim ODD bay
D. USB 2.0 front-mounted charging port

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
Which benefit applies to ECC memory?

A. Offers superior data integrity by correcting single bit memory soft errors
B. Offers maximum expandability in data storage options and connectivity options
C. Offers increased reliability for always-on environments where rebooting computers is not an option
D. Offers superior efficiency of storage space effectively increasing storage in the same device

Answer: A

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CD0-001 CDIA+ Certification Exam

QUESTION NO: 1
A content management solution has been designed for a company. In order to complete the implementation it will be necessary to remove user access to the content management database for several hours a day for several weeks. How should this requirement be addressed?

A. Solicit the vendors’ input for the best times to conduct implementation tasks.
B. Solicit the solution owner’s input for the best times to conduct implementation tasks.
C. Redesign the solution so that all of the implementation can be handles in one 24-hour period.
D. Indicate to the solution owner that the best time for implementation tasks is 10 pm – 12 am daily.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2
An Implementation Plan for a new imaging application should contain which activities?

A. Forms design, create the document retention strategy document and layout the workflow rules and roles.
B. integrate the production imaging system into the exsiting netwoke,connect it with the legacy systems,upgrade all of the desktop computers.
C. Verify that images are delivered to the desktop, that the records are written in the database, and check that the images are stored on optical disks.
D. difine production producers,creat user and techcical documention,administration and plan the roll-out in the organization.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Who is most likely to determine the origin of the bottlenecks if the productivity of a new workflow system is less than expected?

A. End-user
B. Help Desk
C. IT Department
D. System Integrator

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
A company, Certkiller Inc, is using 90% of its network capacity. They plan to scan 5,000 images per day to a network file server. In order to meet the increased demands on the system, which of the following should be increased?

A. The network bandwidth.
B. The number of scanners.
C. The number of network servers.
D. The number of users on the network.

Answer: A

FCESP Fortinet Certified Email Security Professional

QUESTION NO: 1
Which protection profile can be used to protect against Directory Harvest attacks?

A. antispam profile
B. session profile
C. content profile
D. antivirus profile

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2
What is one reason for deploying a FortiMail unit in Transparent Mode?

A. DNS records do not necessarily have to be modified.
B. Mail is not queued thereby expediting mail delivery.
C. Mail is not inspected unless a policy explicitly matches the traffic.
D. No user information needs to be stored on the FortiMail unit when operating in Transparent Mode.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
Which profile can be used to protect against Denial of Service attacks?

A. antispam profile
B. session profile
C. dos profile
D. security profile

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following parameters CANNOT be configured using the Quick Start Wizard?

A. protected domains
B. system time
C. operation mode
D. access control rules
E. antispam settings

Answer: C

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642-648 Deploying Cisco ASA VPN Solutions (VPN v2.0)

QUESTION: 1
ABC Corporation has hired a temporary worker to help out with a new project. The
network administrator gives you the task of restricting the internal clientless SSL VPN network access of the temporary worker to one server with the IP address of 172.26.26.50 via HTTP. Which two actions should you take to complete the assignment? (Choose two.)

A. Configure access-list temp_acl webtype permit url http://172.26.26.50.
B. Configure access-list temp_acl_stand_ACL standard permit host 172.26.26.50.
C. Configure access-list temp_acl_extended extended permit http any host 172.26.26.50.
D. Apply the access list to the temporary worker Group Policy.
E. Apply the access list to the temporary worker Connection Profile.
F. Apply the access list to the outside interface in the inbound direction.

Answer: A, D

QUESTION: 2
In which three ways can a Cisco ASA security appliance obtain a certificate revocation list? (Choose three.)

A. FTP
B. SCEP
C. TFTP
D. HTTP
E. LDAP
F. SCP

Answer: B, D, E

QUESTION: 3
Which three statements about clientless SSL VPN are true? (Choose three.)

A. Users are not tied to a particular PC or workstation.
B. Users have full application access to internal corporate resources.
C. Minimal IT support is required.
D. Cisco AnyConnect SSL VPN software is automatically downloaded to the remote user at the start of the clientless session.
E. For security reasons, browser cookies are disabled for clientless SSL VPN sessions.
F. Clientless SSL VPN requires an SSL-enabled web browser.

Answer: A, C, F

650-297 TelePresence Video Field Engineer for Advanced Exam

QUESTION NO: 1
Which service is responsible for polling the system registered in Cisco TMS?

A. TMS SNMP service
B. TMS Database Scanner service
C. TMS Scheduler service
D. TMS Live service

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
A customer would like all conferences of more than two systems to always use the Cisco Telepresense MCU. What should you configure in order to enable the facility?

A. The Cisco TelePresence needs to be configured.
B. A participant template needs to be configured.
C. A conference template needs to be configured.
D. An advance Conference option needs to be configured.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
What is the purpose of the ISDN and the IP zones in Cisco TMS?

A. To configure the neighboring, of gatekeepers
B. To display systems correctly in the map mode
C. To perform call routing
D. To configure subzones, links, and pipes in gatekeepers

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
How does provisioning work?

A. The registration request of a Cisco TelePresence Movi or a Cisco IP Video Phone E2Q system triggers a replication event on the Cisco TMS and user data is collected from the LDAP server.
B. The presence database running on the VCS allows the Cisco TelePresence Movi and the Cisco IP Video Phone E20 systems to register.
C. The LDAP server replicates selected users via Cisco TMS agents to the VCS and endpoint devices.
D. The TMS agent replicates the Provisioning Directory from Cisco TMS to the VCS. Cisco TelePresence Movi and Cisco IP Video Phone E20 clients receive configuration details when they register.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5
If provisioning replication fails for any reason, what should you do to determine the cause of the failure?

A. Run all diagnostic tests on the TMS Agent Diagnostics page.
B. Capture Cisco TelePresence Movi logs and find the problem.
C. Re-install the Cisco TelePresence Movi client and try again.
D. Run a wireshark trace on the communication between the Cisco TelePresence Movi

Answer: A

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250-253 Administration of Veritas Cluster Server 6.0 for Unix

QUESTION NO: 1
You have removed a system from a running Veritas Cluster Server cluster so that the cluster now only has seven nodes. You need to ensure the cluster will start successfully after a complete cluster shutdown. Which line should be in the /etc/gabtab file to successfully start the cluster?

A. gabconfig -c -n 7
B. clust start seed=7
C. gabconfig start seed=7
D. clust -c -n 7

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
In a four-node cluster configuration, main.cf is modified to remove one of the four nodes. That node is decommissioned, and the remaining cluster configuration is unchanged. A power failure causes all three remaining nodes to shut down. What happens when all three nodes are powered on?

A. The three nodes form a cluster.
B. Veritas Cluster Server will need manual intervention to come online.
C. LLT will fail because the fourth node is in the llthosts.
D. Veritas Cluster Server will go into ADMIN_WAIT.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
An additional email address was added to the Veritas Cluster Server notifier resource without any other actions being taken. All but one user is receiving notifications. How can this problem be solved?

A. refresh the mailbox of the impacted user
B. restart the notifier resource
C. restart the SNMP daemon
D. restart the HAD daemon

Answer: B

640-554 Implementing Cisco IOS Network Security (IINS v2.0)

QUESTION NO: 1
Which two features are supported by Cisco IronPort Security Gateway? (Choose two.)

A. spam protection
B. outbreak intelligence
C. HTTP and HTTPS scanning
D. email encryption
E. DDoS protection

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 2
Which option is a feature of Cisco ScanSafe technology?

A. spam protection
B. consistent cloud-based policy
C. DDoS protection
D. RSA Email DLP

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
Which two characteristics represent a blended threat? (Choose two.)

A. man-in-the-middle attack
B. trojan horse attack
C. pharming attack
D. denial of service attack
E. day zero attack

Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 4
Under which higher-level policy is a VPN security policy categorized?

A. application policy
B. DLP policy
C. remote access policy
D. compliance policy
E. corporate WAN policy

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 5
What does level 5 in this enable secret global configuration mode command indicate?
router#enable secret level 5 password

A. The enable secret password is hashed using MD5.
B. The enable secret password is hashed using SHA.
C. The enable secret password is encrypted using Cisco proprietary level 5 encryption.
D. Set the enable secret command to privilege level 5.
E. The enable secret password is for accessing exec privilege level 5.

Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 6
Which Cisco management tool provides the ability to centrally provision all aspects of device configuration across the Cisco family of security products?

A. Cisco Configuration Professional
B. Security Device Manager
C. Cisco Security Manager
D. Cisco Secure Management Server

Answer: C