Monthly Archives: May 2014

HP2-Z30 exam online

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HP2-Z30 exam online

  • Code:HP2-Z30
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    What is the default username and password an administrator would use to log into a new HP MSM access point?
    A. username of “hp” and password of “hp”
    B. username of “msm” and password of “wireless”
    C. username of “admin” and password of “hp”
    D. username of “admin” and password of “admin”
    Answer: D
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which Intelligent Management Center (IMC) group role allows an administrator to manage
    networking devices, but cannot add new IMC administrative users?
    A. Operator
    B. Administrator
    C. Manager
    D. Maintainer
    Answer: D
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Which Layer 2 mechanism should be used to authenticate wireless or wired users before allowing them access to network resources?
    A. 802.1X
    B. MIMO
    C. 802.1Z
    D. WPA
    Answer: A
    QUESTION NO: 4
    Which HP switch supports nine switches in an IRF topology?
    A. 5120-SI
    B. 5820
    C. 7500
    D. 12500
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Which component of an HP Comware switch controls logging on to a syslog server?
    A. Log Parser
    B. Event Analyzer
    C. Information Center
    D. Event Log
    Answer: C

HP2-K38 exam study guide

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HP2-K38 exam study guide

  • Code:HP2-K38
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    Which customer scenarios can the HP Storage Data Migration Service support? (Select two.)
    A. The customer wants to enable mirroring capabilities.
    B. The customer wants to consolidate their environment,
    C. The customer wants to implement a tiered storage strategy.
    D. The customer wants to redistribute data within the array.
    E. The customer wants to move magazines within the array.
    Answer: B,C
    QUESTION NO: 2
    A customer has expressed objections to moving to a new HP 3PAR StoreServ architecture because of the migration complexities involved.
    Which statement should you make to position Peer Motion as a solution for this customer?
    A. It can complete controller node firmware updates with zero downtime.
    B. It is a customer-implementable, non-disruptive data migration tool,
    C. It performs a bit-by-bit copy for data archives by using data deduplication.
    D. It enables customers to migrate live virtual machines with no downtime.
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 3
    A customer asks you to explain what makes HP 3PAR StoreServ Thin Provisioning unique.
    Which two statements should you include in your response? (Select two.)
    A. The decision to go thin can be made during original disk layout or later without compromising the time invested.
    B. The HP thin technology speeds up and simplifies data migration to other non-HP storage appliances.
    C. Disk space savings and efficient use of capacity yields a higher ROI for the life of the array.
    D. Replicated data eliminates the need to write any zeros that were removed from the primary data source.
    E. Administrators are not forced to configure the drives specifically to avoid drawDacks in
    performance.
    Answer: C,D
    QUESTION NO: 4
    A customer asks for an explanation of how HP 3PAR StoreServ Thin Reclamation technology can help them manage their growing storage space consumption.
    Which two features should you describe? (Select two.)
    A. Management follows the same flow and process as thick reclamation, and it is possible to toggle back and forth with one click.
    B. When zeros are removed, they are not included with snapshots or copies.
    C. When a snapshot, full copy, or LUN is deleted, the space is immediately available without requiring a physical capacity format.
    D. Reserving unused capacity is not necessary because it is returned to a common pool.
    Answer: C,D
    QUESTION NO: 5
    A customer tells you that they are considering EMC instead of HP because HP StoreOnce does not support global deduplication.
    What should you tell this customer to overcome this objection?
    A. Unlike EMC global deduplication, HP federated deduplication supports RAID protection through a wide choice of RAID levels.
    B. HP federated deduplication is superior to EMC global deduplication because it offers seamless data movement across the enterprise.
    C. EMC global deduplication sacrifices high availability, and risks losing access to the entire global deduplicated data pool.
    D. The EMC hash matching process works on a smaller subset of data, sacrificing efficiency.
    Answer: A

HP2-H31practice test

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HP2-H31practice test

  • Code:HP2-H31
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    Who are the leading competitors for HP Z620 workstations?
    A. Samick, Asus, and Dell
    B. IBM, Lexmark, and NVDIA
    C. Samsung, Gold Star, and Hyundai
    D. Dell,Lenovo,and Apple
    Answer: D
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which market segment is targeted for HP Z230 workstations?
    A. Oil and gas
    B. Home office
    C. Small retail
    D. Education
    Answer: A
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Which option available on HP Z420 workstations enables whisper quiet acoustics even under heavy loads?
    A. Mini tower design
    B. Up to 64 GB ECC memory
    C. Latest technology from NVIDIA
    D. Liquid cooling subsystem
    Answer: D
    Reference:
    http://www.asetek.com/press-room/news/2009/asetek-adds-liquid-cooling-to-hp-zworkstations.aspx
    QUESTION NO: 4
    Which feature that applies to HP Z1 workstations appeals to customers in the healthcare market segment?
    A. 92 percent efficient 240 Watt power supply
    B. Easyto clean 27-inch IPS professional display
    C. 27-inch HP DreamColor display
    D. Large 17-inch display real estate
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Which feature applies to the liquid cooling option available in some HP workstations?
    A. Reduces the toxicity of the cooling process
    B. Replaces the air passing over the heat sink with liquid
    C. Muffles the fan noise by surrounding the fan shroud with liquid
    D. Replaces the heat sink with a cold plate
    Answer: C
    Reference:
    http://www.asetek.com/press-room/news/2011/pc-liquid-cooling-comes-of-age-withasetek%E2%80%99s-sealed-systems.aspx

EX0-003 exam training

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EX0-003 exam training

  • Code:EX0-003
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    Which activity includes addressing the disadvantages of ‘doing nothing’ to those stakeholders that object to the programme?
    A. Analyse stakeholders
    B. Sum ma rise risks
    C. Carry out a health check
    D. Conduct a visioning workshop
    Answer: D
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which of the following statements about the core elements of successful communications is true?
    1. Stakeholder analysis is required
    2. Audit trail is established
    A. Only 1 is true
    B. Only 2 is true
    C. Both land 2are true
    D. Neither 1 or 2 is true
    Answer: A
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Which is an assurance management technique?
    A. Benefits management
    B. Risk management
    C. Business analysis
    D. Gated review
    Answer: D
    QUESTION NO: 4
    Which is the MOST likely source of uncertainties whilst transitioning to new ways of working?
    A. Project development
    B. Programme level
    C. Operational activities
    D. Strategic development
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Which is a governance area of focus for the Programme Manager in consultation with other stakeholders?
    A. Providing support for governance assurance reviews
    B. Initiating assurance reviews of programme viability
    C. Providing business intelligence for Stakeholder Profiles
    D. Designing the programm’s governance arrangements
    Answer: D

EX0-002 question and answer

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EX0-002 question and answer

  • Code:EX0-002
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    When considering risks, which describes an opportunity in a project?
    A. An uncertain event that could have a negative impact on objectives
    B. An uncertain event that could have a favourable impact on objectives
    C. An event that has occurred resulting in a negative impact on objectives
    D. An event that has occurred resulting in a favourable impact on objectives
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which of the following statements about lines of authority and reporting are true?
    1, The Project Manager has day-to-day control for a management stage within the limits laid,
    2. If a Team Manager forecasts a deviation beyond Work Package tolerances, this should be referred to the Project Manager down by the Project Board.
    A. Only 1 is true
    B. Only 2 is true
    C. Both 1 and 2 are true
    D. Neither 1 or 2 are true
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Which may be funded from a risk budget?
    A. Corrections due to off-specifications
    B. Impact analysis of requests for change
    C. Implementation of a fallback plan
    D. Preparation of the Risk Management Strategy
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 4
    What is the first task of product-based planning?
    A. Produce the Initiation Stage Plan
    B. Write the Project Product Description
    C. Identify dependencies
    D. Create the product breakdown structure
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 5
    How many tasks does the product-based planning technique describe?
    A. One
    B. Two
    C. Three
    D. Four
    Answer: D

700-301 exam online

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700-301 exam online

  • Code:700-301
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    Which router, in virtual form factor, is intended for deployment in cloud data centers?
    A. Cisco Nexus 1000V
    B. Cisco Virtual Wide Area Application Services
    C. Cisco ASA 1000V Cloud Firewall
    D. Cisco CSR 1000V
    Answer: D
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which feature helps to simplify and scale branch IT operations?
    A. Selection of optimal path by application type and priority
    B. WAN optimization for every size site
    C. Quality of service to BYOD applications
    D. Visibility into encrypted wireless traffic
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Which benefit of Cisco Unified Access corresponds with “fast stateful recovery”?
    A. Fair-share bandwidth management
    B. Traffic optimization
    C. Maximum resiliency
    D. Unified policy enforcement point
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 4
    When a customer expresses concerns about the lack of visibility into the network, which feature should you highlight when you position the Cisco Medianet solution?
    A. Compatibility with third-party solutions
    B. Faster troubleshooting
    C. Media monitoring features on the routers
    D. Autoconfiguration features within the switch access layer
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 5
    A customer is looking for small deployments, especially in high-usage areas of their network.
    While all of these statements hold true for Cisco Medianet, what is a key point to highlight so that your customer is encouraged to buy the Cisco solution?
    A. Cisco Medianet can be deployed in phases that allow customers to realize benefits quickly.
    B. Cisco Medianet provides greater visibility and granularity.
    C. Cisco Medianet can co-exist with legacy network elements.
    D. Cisco Medianet is designed to work with third-party endpoints.
    Answer: A

300-207 test online

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300-207 test online

  • Code:300-207
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    During initial configuration, the Cisco ASA can be configured to drop all traffic if the ASA CX SSP fails by using which command in a policy-map?
    A. cxsc fail
    B. cxsc fail-close
    C. cxsc fail-open
    D. cxssp fail-close
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 2
    A network engineer may use which three types of certificates when implementing HTTPS
    decryption services on the ASA CX? (Choose three.)
    A. Self Signed Server Certificate
    B. Self Signed Root Certificate
    C. Microsoft CA Server Certificate
    D. Microsoft CA Subordinate Root Certificate
    E. LDAP CA Server Certificate
    F. LDAP CA Root Certificate
    G. Public Certificate Authority Server Certificate
    H. Public Certificate Authority Root Certificate
    Answer: B,D,F
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Cisco’s ASA CX includes which two URL categories? (Choose two.)
    A. Proxy Avoidance
    B. Dropbox
    C. Hate Speech
    D. Facebook
    E. Social Networking
    F. Instant Messaging and Video Messaging
    Answer: C,E
    QUESTION NO: 4
    A Cisco Web Security Appliance’s policy can provide visibility and control of which two elements?
    (Choose two.)
    A. Voice and Video Applications
    B. Websites with a reputation between -100 and -60
    C. Secure websites with certificates signed under an unknown CA
    D. High bandwidth websites during business hours
    Answer: C,D
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Which Cisco Web Security Appliance design requires minimal change to endpoint devices?
    A. Transparent Mode
    B. Explicit Forward Mode
    C. Promiscuous Mode
    D. Inline Mode
    Answer: A

1Z0-497 exam online

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1Z0-497 exam online

  • Code:1Z0-497
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    Which statement about CDB architecture is true?
    A. Oracle-supplied metadata resides only in the root container.
    B. A seed PDB can sometimes be opened for particular operations.
    C. Multiple PDBs with the same name can reside in the same CDB.
    D. A CDB can have an infinite number of PDBs.
    E. You can create common users in PDBs.
    Answer: A
    Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17633/cdbovrvw.htm#CNCPT89235
    QUESTION NO: 2
    As part of your Oracle Database 12c post-installation tasks, you run these commands:
    Cd $ORACLE_HOME/bin
    srvctl stop database -d myDb
    chopt enable dm
    srvctl start database -d myDb
    What does this do?
    A. It enables the Oracle Data Mining option in your Oracle binary files.
    B. It creates the Fast Recovery Area disk group.
    C. It generates Client Static Library.
    D. It configures one of the Oracle user accounts.
    E. It configures Oracle Net Services.
    F. It configures Oracle Messaging Gateway.
    Answer: A
    Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/install.121/e17889/postinst.htm#RILIN1049 (see
    4.4)
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Which two statements about ADDM are true?
    A. Real-Time ADDM uses AWR snapshots of the last 10 minutes.
    B. Real-Time ADDM uses ASH recent activity from SGA data.
    C. Real-Time ADDM analyzes performance in a completely different fashion than regular ADDM.
    D. Regular ADDM uses AWR snapshots that are not yet purged.
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 4
    Which two statements are true about shared server sessions?
    A. No Program Global Area (PGA) is allocated for shared server processes.
    B. User Global Area is stored in System Global Area (SGA).
    C. Shared SQL Area is allocated from Program Global Area (PGA).
    D. Private SQL Area is allocated from Library Cache.
    E. Large Pool is used for SQL work areas.
    Answer: D
    Reference:
    http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14220/memory.htm (see library
    cache)
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Which targets can be managed by using Enterprise Manager Cloud Control?
    A. Hosts and databases
    B. Hosts, databases, and application servers
    C. Application servers and web applications
    D. Databases, Oracle Management Server (OMS), and Oracle Management Repository (OMR)
    E. Databases, application servers, and web applications
    F. Hosts, databases, application servers, web applications, OMS, and OMR
    Answer: A
    Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/oem/framework-infra/wp-em12c-security-bestpracticesv2-1493383.pdf (page 3, second bulleted point, last couple of sentences)

300-209 exam study guide

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300-209 exam study guide

  • Code:300-209
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    Which two are characteristics of GETVPN? (Choose two.)
    A. The IP header of the encrypted packet is preserved
    B. A key server is elected among all configured Group Members
    C. Unique encryption keys are computed for each Group Member
    D. The same key encryption and traffic encryption keys are distributed to all Group Members
    Answer: A,D
    QUESTION NO: 2
    A company has decided to migrate an existing IKEv1 VPN tunnel to IKEv2. Which two are valid configuration constructs on a Cisco IOS router? (Choose two.)
    A. crypto ikev2 keyring keyring-name
    peer peer1
    address 209.165.201.1 255.255.255.255
    pre-shared-key local key1
    pre-shared-key remote key2
    B. crypto ikev2 transform-set transform-set-name
    esp-3des esp-md5-hmac
    esp-aes esp-sha-hmac
    C. crypto ikev2 map crypto-map-name
    set crypto ikev2 tunnel-group tunnel-group-name
    set crypto ikev2 transform-set transform-set-name
    D. crypto ikev2 tunnel-group tunnel-group-name
    match identity remote address 209.165.201.1
    authentication local pre-share
    authentication remote pre-share
    E. crypto ikev2 profile profile-name
    match identity remote address 209.165.201.1
    authentication local pre-share
    authentication remote pre-share
    Answer: A,E
    QUESTION NO: 3
    A. authenticates group members
    B. manages security policy
    C. creates group keys
    D. distributes policy/keys
    E. encrypts endpoint traffic
    F. receives policy/keys
    G. defines group members
    Answer: A,B,C,D
    QUESTION NO: 4
    Where is split-tunneling defined for remote access clients on an ASA?
    A. Group-policy
    B. Tunnel-group
    C. Crypto-map
    D. Web-VPN Portal
    E. ISAKMP client
    Answer: A
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Which of the following could be used to configure remote access VPN Host-scan and pre-login policies?
    A. ASDM
    B. Connection-profile CLI command
    C. Host-scan CLI command under the VPN group policy
    D. Pre-login-check CLI command
    Answer: A

1Z0-485 question and answer

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1Z0-485 question and answer

  • Code:1Z0-485
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    Exadata Database Machine offers an Intelligent Platform Management Interface for the various components in the Exadata product. Which option is true?
    A. IPMI can be used to remotely start and stop servers.
    B. IPMI can be used to remotely log in to the operating system.
    C. IPMI commands can be executed by using SNMP traps.
    D. IPMI settings can be secured by backing up the Oracle Linux installation on the storage system.
    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    IPMI – short for Intelligent Platform Management Interface – is an interface standard
    that allows remote management of a server from another using standardized interface. The servers in the Exadata Database Machine follow that. It’s not an Exadata command but rather a general Linux one.
    To power on a cell or database server, issue this from another server:
    # ipmitool -H prolcel01-ilom -U root chassis power on
    To stop a server, use the shutdown command. To stop immediately and keep it down, i.e. Not reboot, execute:# shutdown -h -y now
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which is the best location to point your customer to, for finding the latest Exadata patches?
    A. owner’s guide
    B. Patch database in MyOracle Support
    C. MyOracle Support note 888828.1
    D. MyOracle Support for database patches, ULN for OS patches, and Sun Support for Server and InfiniBand patches.
    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Before starting, we would like to share and note here two documents from My
    Oracle Support, aka metalink. These notes must be the first place that you need to go to review before patching the Exadata environment.
    * (B) Database Machine and Exadata Storage Server 11g Release 2 (11.2) Supported Versions (Doc ID. 888828.1)
    - This is for the second and third generation (V2 and X2) for Oracle Exadata, using Sun hardware.
    * Database Machine and Exadata Storage Server 11g Release 1 (11.1) Supported Versions (Doc ID. 835032.1)
    * – This is for the first generation (V1) for Oracle Exadata, using HP hardware.
    QUESTION NO: 3
    A customer has three databases named CC. FIN, and DW. The CC database is for their
    CallCenter. Even a slight decrease in the response time of the database would mean more people “on hold” in their data center. The orders received through the CallCenter are stored in the Finance (FIN) database. Both databases, CC and FIN, serve as sources for the Data Warehouse (DW) database. All databases use the same Automatic Storage Management (ASM) diskgroup and therefore, the same physical disks on Exadata storage. The customer wants to dynamically control the resources that are available for the CallCenter database because this has direct impact on their operations?
    Which option should be implemented?
    A. DBRM on the CC database
    B. DBRM on all the databases
    C. IORM, because DBRM cannot be changed for an existing session
    D. IORM and DBRM
    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Using the Database Resource Manager, you can:
    Distribute available processing resources by allocating percentages of CPU time to different users and applications. In a data warehouse, a higher percentage may be given to ROLAP (relational on-line analytical processing) applications than to batch jobs.
    QUESTION NO: 4
    Consider the following software changes that are performed manually on a Linux server:
    1. Changes for Linux kernel firewall configuration
    2. Changes for custom performance monitoring tools
    3. Changes for security scan tools
    4. Changes for Linux system performance optimization
    Which of the software changes listed are permitted on Exadata Storage Servers?
    A. 1, 2, 3, and 4
    B. only 3 ‘
    C. none
    D. only 2
    E. only 1 and 2
    F. only 2 and 3
    Answer: E
    Explanation:
    1: The Storage Server Patch is responsible for keeping our cell nodes always up-todate,
    fixing possible problems, and this patch includes different component patches, like kernel
    patches, firmware, operation system, etc… for the Storage Server.
    Incorrect:
    3,4: security scan tools changes and Linux system performance optimization changes would be on the database server.
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Which two statements are true about enabling write-back flash cache?
    A. When enabling write-back flash cache in a non rolling manner, it is important to ensure that asmdeactivatonoutcome is set to YES and asmModestatus is set to ONLINE for all grid disks.
    B. Before using write-back flash cache, you need to verify the minimum required versions.
    C. Before write back-flash cache is enabled, you need to drop the Flash Cache first.
    D. The setting flashCacheMode should be set to writeback by updating cellinit.ora and restarting cellsrv.
    E. When enabling write-back flash cache in a rolling manner, dcli should be used to inactivate the grid disks on all cells first.
    Answer: B,C
    Explanation:
    B: Exadata storage version 11.2.3.2.1 is the minimum version required to use this
    write back flash cache option.
    C: Steps for Enabling Write back flash cache:
    First of all, you don’t need the stop CRS or database (This is ROLLING method) ,you can do it cell by cell.
    * drop flashcache
    * Be sure asmdeactivationoutcome is YES is before disabling grid disk