Practicetest 1Z0-591 Oracle cert24

Practicetest 1Z0-591 Oracle cert24

Practicetest 1Z0-591 Oracle cert24

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1Z0-591 Oracle Business Intelligence Foundation Suite 11g Essentials our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest 1Z0-591 Oracle cert24

QUESTION NO: 1
Object Security controls access to Subject Areas, Tables, and Columns in OBIEE and can be implemented by using which method?

A. Single Sign-On (SSO)
B. Database Authentication
C. Business Logic Object Security
D. External Table Authentication
E. LDAP Authentication

Answer: C

Explanation: Object-level security controls the visibility to business logical objects based on a user’s role. You can set up object-level security for metadata repository objects, such as subject areas and presentation folders, and for Web objects, such as dashboards and dashboard pages, which are defined in the Presentation Catalog.
1) Business logic object
This controls access to objects, such as:
* subject areas
* presentation tables
* presentation columns
For example, users in a particular department can view only the subject areas that belong to their department.
2) Web object security
This provides security for objects stored in the Web Catalog, such as dashboards, dashboard pages, folders, and reports. You can view only the objects for which you are authorized. For example, a mid-level manager may not be granted access to a dashboard containing summary information for an entire department.

QUESTION NO: 2
Which two steps are needed to set up Failover support for an OBIEE deployment?

A. Use Installer to affect Horizontal scale out of an existing instance
B. Employ WebLogic Enterprise Edition, licensed separately
C. Use Installer to set up separate single instances, then apply Horizontal scale out clustering
D. Apply OBIEE Clustering option
E. Leverage spare hardware capacity of single machine by using Verticalscale out option

Answer: A,D

Explanation: Horizonal Scaleout of System Components
* Used for adding additional managed servers (Java components) and
system components to an existing cluster
* Used for scalability and failover
* Set up via the Universal Installer > Scale Out BI System option

QUESTION NO: 3
When creating an initialization Block, which BI Administration function is used?
A. Variable Manager
B. Job Manager
C. Identity Manager
D. Projects Manager

Answer: A

Practicetest 1Z0-591 Oracle cert24

Practicetest 1Z0-536 Oracle cert24

Practicetest 1Z0-536 Oracle cert24

Practicetest 1Z0-536 Oracle cert24

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1Z0-536 Oracle Exadata 11g Essentials our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

Practicetest 1Z0-536 Oracle cert24

QUESTION NO: 1
When do you specify the type of interleaving for a grid disk?

A. When you create the cell disk
B. When you create the grid disk
C. Through ASM
D. When you create a tablespace

Answer: C

Explanation: Automatic Storage Management (ASM) is the storage management foundation of Exadata. ASM virtualizes the storage resources and provides the advanced volume management and file system capabilities of Exadata. Striping database files evenly across the available Exadata cells and disks results in uniform I/O load across all the storage hardware. The ability of ASM to perform non-intrusive resource allocation, and reallocation, is a key enabler of the shared grid storage capabilities of Exadata environments. And the ASM mirroring and failure group functionality provides much of the data protection and resiliency across the Exadata environment.
With ASM, data is mirrored across cells to ensure high availability in the event of cell failure.

http://www.pythian.com/news/17905/physical-disk-cell-disk-grid-disk-and-asm-disk-in-exadata/

QUESTION NO: 2
Why would you reduce the default disk_repair_time parameter?

A. To extend the availability of your ASM disk groups.
B. To reduce the need for high redundancy
C. To reduce the amount of data collected for a fast resynch
D. To increase performance of an Exadata Storage Server.

Answer: C

Practicetest 1Z0-536 Oracle cert24

Practicetest 1Z0-147 Oracle cert24

Practicetest 1Z0-147 Oracle cert24
Practicetest 1Z0-147 Oracle cert24

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1Z0-147 Oracle9i program with pl/sql our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION 1
You want to create procedures, functions and packages Which privilege do you need?
A. EXECUTE CODE object privilege
B. CREATE ANY CODE object privilege
C. CREATE PACKAGE system privilege
D. CREATE PROCEDURE system privilege
E. CREATE FUNCTION, CREATE PROCEDURE, CREATE PACKAGE system privileges

Answer: D

Explanation/Reference:
The privilege CREATE PROCEDURE gives the grantee the right to create procedures, functions, and packages within their schema. This privilege does not give the right to drop or alter the program constructs.
Incorrect Answers
A, B & C are not valid object or system privileges.

QUESTION 2
You have created a stored procedure DELETE_TEMP_TABLE that uses dynamic SQL to remove a table in your schema. You have granted the EXECUTE privilege to user A on this procedure. When user A executes the DELETE_TEMP_TABLE procedure, under whose privileges are the operations performed by default?
A. SYS privileges
B. Your privileges
C. Public privileges
D. User A’s privileges
E. User A cannot execute your procedure that has dynamic SQL.

Answer: B

Explanation/Reference:
When you create a procedure, it will be executed under the privileges of the creator, unless the procedure has the following statement AUTHID CURRENT_USER. If you specify AUTHID CURRENT_USER, the privileges of the current user are checked at run time, and external references are resolved in the schema of the current user. Like this example
SQL> CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE delete_temp_table(v_table varchar2)
2 AUTHID CURRENT_USER
3 IS
4 BEGIN
5 EXECUTE IMMEDIATE ‘DROP TABLE ‘||V_TABLE;
6 END;
7 /
Procedure created.
If the procedure is create in this way then the EXECUTE IMMEDIATE statement will be execute under the privilege of the user who executes the procedure, but if we skip line 2 then the procedure will be executed under the privilege of the owner of the procedure.
Incorrect Answers
A: SYS privilege has nothing with is.
C: What is the public privileges? There is nothing called public privileges.
D: This will be true if the procedure contains the AUTHID CURRENT_USER.
E: There is no problem in having a dynamic SQL statement in Procedure.

QUESTION 3
When creating a function, in which section will you typically find the RETURN keyword?
A. HEADER only
B. DECLARATIVE
C. EXECUTABLE and HEADER
D. DECLARATIVE,EXECUTABLE and EXCEPTION HANDLING

Answer: C

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Practicetest 1Z0-055 Oracle cert24

Practicetest 1Z0-055 Oracle cert24
Practicetest 1Z0-055 Oracle cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

1Z0-055 Oracle Database 11g: New Features for 9i OCPs our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION 1
You installed Oracle Database 11g and are performing a manual upgrade of the Oracle9i database. As a part of the upgrade process, you execute the following script:
SQL>@utlu111i.sql
Which statement about the execution of this script is true?

A. It must be executed from the Oracle Database 11g environment.
B. It must be executed only after the SYSAUX tablespace has been created.
C. It must be executed from the environment of the database that is being upgraded.
D. It must be executed only after AUTOEXTEND is set to ON for all existing tablespaces.
E. It must be executed from both the Oracle Database 11g and Oracle Database 9i environments.

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about the SQL Management Base (SMB) are true? (Choose two.)

A. It contains only SQL profiles generated by SQL Tuning Advisor.
B. It stores plans generated by the optimizer using a stored outline.
C. It is part of the data dictionary and stored in the SYSAUX tablespace.
D. It is part of the data dictionary and stored in the SYSTEM tablespace.
E. It contains the statement log, the plan history, plan baselines, and SQL profiles.

Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
Which statement about the enabling of table compression in Oracle Database 11g is true?

A. Compression can be enabled at the table, tablespace, or partition level for direct loads only.
B. Compression can be enabled only at the table level for both direct loads and conventional DML.
C. Compression can be enabled at the table, tablespace, or partition level for conventional DML only.
D. Compression can be enabled at the table, tablespace, or partition level for both direct loads and
conventional DML.

Answer: D

Practicetest 1Z0-055 Oracle cert24

Practicetest 1Z0-052 Oracle cert24

Practicetest 1Z0-052 Oracle cert24

Practicetest 1Z0-052 Oracle cert24

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1Z0-052 Oracle Database 11g: Administrator I our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION NO: 1
Your database instance is currently configured to support 1,500 connections. The Web application that uses the database allows a large number of users to work with the database simultaneously.
Some users of the Web application do not interact with the server all the time. You want to
increase the scalability by configuring the database instance to handle more connections. As a DBA, which configuration would you set to support more than 1,500 connections at a time?

A. You would configure more listeners for the database.
B. You would configure the database in shared server mode to use the connection pooling feature.
C. You would increase the value of the PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET initialization parameter that assigns more session memory to users.
D. You would decrease the value of the PRIVATE_SGA resource limit in the profiles used by the users to accommodate more session information.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2
Which two statements describe good practices for an application developer to reduce locking conflicts in Oracle database? (Choose two.)

A. Avoid coding unnecessary longrunning transactions.
B. Allow the database to handle locks in default locking mode.
C. Always explicitly code the locks as per the requirement of the application.
D. Allow escalation of row locks to block locks if too many row locks cause problem.

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 3
These are points that describe the contents of different memory components:
1: Descriptive information or metadata about schema objects that are queried by using SQL statements
2: The runtime area for data manipulation language (DML) or data definition language (DDL) statements
3: Results of SQL queries and PL/SQL functions
4: Executable forms of SQL cursors, PL/SQL programs, and Java classes
5: The information necessary to reconstruct changes made to the database by a transaction
Which of these will be stored in the Shared Pool if the necessary configurations are done?

A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 5
C. 1,3, and 4
D. 3,4 and 5
E. 1,2,3 and 4

Answer: C

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Practicetest 1Z0-051 Oracle cert24

Practicetest 1Z0-051 Oracle cert24

Practicetest 1Z0-051 Oracle cert24

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1Z0-051 Oracle Database: SQL Fundamentals I our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION 1
View the Exhibit and examine the data in the

The PROJ_TASK_DETAILS table stores information about tasks involved in a project and the relation between them.
The BASED_ON column indicates dependencies between tasks. Some tasks do not depend on the completion of any other tasks.

You need to generate a report showing all task IDs, the corresponding task ID they are dependent on, and the name of the employee in charge of the task it depends on.

Which query would give the required result?

A. SELECT p.task_id, p.based_on, d.task_in_charge
FROM proj_task_details p JOIN proj_task_details d
ON (p.based_on = d.task_id);
B. SELECT p.task_id, p.based_on, d.task_in_charge
FROM proj_task_details p LEFT OUTER JOIN proj_task_details d ON (p.based_on = d.task_id);
C. SELECT p.task_id, p.based_on, d.task_in_charge
FROM proj_task_details p FULL OUTER JOIN proj_task_details d ON (p.based_on = d.task_id);
D. SELECT p.task_id, p.based_on, d.task_in_charge
FROM proj_task_details p JOIN proj_task_details d
ON (p.task_id = d.task_id);

Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true regarding subqueries? (Choose two.)

A. A subquery can retrieve zero or more rows.
B. Only two subqueries can be placed at one level.
C. A subquery can be used only in SQL query statements.
D. A subquery can appear on either side of a comparison operator.
E. There is no limit on the number of subquery levels in the WHERE clause of a SELECT statement.

Answer: AD

Practicetest 1Z0-051 Oracle cert24

Practicetest 1Z0-047 Oracle cert24

Practicetest 1Z0-047 Oracle cert24

Practicetest 1Z0-047 Oracle cert24

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1Z0-047 Oracle Database SQL Expert our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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1.Which two statements are true regarding the types of table joins available in Oracle Database
10g? (Choose two.)
A.You can use the JOIN clause to join only two tables.
B.You can explicitly provide the join condition with a NATURAL JOIN.
C.You can use the USING clause to join tables on more than one column.
D.You can use the ON clause to specify multiple conditions while joining tables.
Correct:C D

2.Which two statements are true regarding subqueries? (Choose two.)
A.The ORDER BY clause can be used in the subquery.
B.A subquery can be used in the FROM clause of a SELECT statement.
C.If the subquery returns NULL, the main query may still return result rows.
D.A subquery can be placed in a WHERE clause, GROUP BY clause, or a HAVING clause.
E.Logical operators, such as AND, OR and NOT, cannot be used in the WHERE clause of a subquery.
Correct:A B

3.Evaluate the following SQL statements in the given order: DROP TABLE dept; CREATE TABLE dept (deptno NUMBER(3) PRIMARY KEY, deptname VARCHAR2(10)); DROP TABLE dept; FLASHBACK TABLE dept TO BEFORE DROP; Which statement is true regarding the above FLASHBACK operation?
A.It recovers only the first DEPT table.
B.It recovers only the second DEPT table.
C.It does not recover any of the tables because FLASHBACK is not possible in this case.
D.It recovers both the tables but the names would be changed to the ones assigned in the RECYCLEBIN.
Correct:B

4.Given below is a list of functions and their purpose in random order. Function Purpose 1)NVL
a) Used for evaluating NOT NULL and NULL values 2)NULLIF b) Used to return the first non- null values in a list of expressions 3)COALESCE c) Used to compare two expressions. If both are same,
it returns NULL; otherwise, it returns only the first expression. 4)NVL2 d) Used to convert NULL
values to actual values Identify the correct combination of functions and their usage.
A.1-a, 2-c, 3-b, 4-d B.1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a C.1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a D.1-d, 2-b, 3-c, 4-a Correct:B

Practicetest 1Z0-047 Oracle cert24

Practicetest 1Z0-042 Oracle cert24

Practicetest 1Z0-042 Oracle cert24

Practicetest 1Z0-042 Oracle cert24

IT Exam,IT Certification,braindump,original questions, question pool,document, braindump, test questions, test question, dumps, test answers, cert24.com, preparation, pdf, certification questions, answers Certification, certification test, practice test, exam dumps, certification training, answers real questions

1Z0-042 Oracle Database 10g: Administration I our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION NO: 1
A user receives the following error while executing a query:
ORA-01555: snapshot too old
Which two options can be the solutions to avoid such errors in future? (Choose two.)
A. increase the size of the Database Buffer Cache
B. increase the size of the default temporary tablespace
C. increase the size of redo log files
D. increase the size of the undo tablespace
E. enable the retention guarantee for the undo tablespace
Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 2
What are the consequences of executing the SHUTDOWN ABORT command? (Choose two.)
A. The database files are synchronized.
B. The database is closed, but the instance is still started.
C. The database undergoes automatic media recovery during the next startup.
D. Database buffers and redo buffers are not written to the disk.
E. Uncommitted changes are not rolled back.
Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 3
The SAVE_AMT column in the ACCOUNTS table contains the balance details of customers in a
bank. As part of the year-end tax and interest calculation process, all the rows in the table need to
be accessed. The bank authorities want to track access to the rows containing balance amounts
exceeding $200,000, and then send an alert message to the administrator. Which method would
you suggest to the bank for achieving this task?
A. performing standard database auditing to audit SQL statements with granularity level set to
ACCESS
B. implementing value-based auditing by using triggers
C. performing standard database auditing to audit object privileges by setting the AUDIT_TRAIL
parameter to EXTENDED
D. implementing fine-grained auditing with audit condition and event handler
Answer: D

Practicetest 1Z0-042 Oracle cert24