300-207 test online

300-207 test online

  • Code:300-207
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    During initial configuration, the Cisco ASA can be configured to drop all traffic if the ASA CX SSP fails by using which command in a policy-map?
    A. cxsc fail
    B. cxsc fail-close
    C. cxsc fail-open
    D. cxssp fail-close
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 2
    A network engineer may use which three types of certificates when implementing HTTPS
    decryption services on the ASA CX? (Choose three.)
    A. Self Signed Server Certificate
    B. Self Signed Root Certificate
    C. Microsoft CA Server Certificate
    D. Microsoft CA Subordinate Root Certificate
    E. LDAP CA Server Certificate
    F. LDAP CA Root Certificate
    G. Public Certificate Authority Server Certificate
    H. Public Certificate Authority Root Certificate
    Answer: B,D,F
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Cisco’s ASA CX includes which two URL categories? (Choose two.)
    A. Proxy Avoidance
    B. Dropbox
    C. Hate Speech
    D. Facebook
    E. Social Networking
    F. Instant Messaging and Video Messaging
    Answer: C,E
    QUESTION NO: 4
    A Cisco Web Security Appliance’s policy can provide visibility and control of which two elements?
    (Choose two.)
    A. Voice and Video Applications
    B. Websites with a reputation between -100 and -60
    C. Secure websites with certificates signed under an unknown CA
    D. High bandwidth websites during business hours
    Answer: C,D
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Which Cisco Web Security Appliance design requires minimal change to endpoint devices?
    A. Transparent Mode
    B. Explicit Forward Mode
    C. Promiscuous Mode
    D. Inline Mode
    Answer: A

1Z0-497 exam online

1Z0-497 exam online

  • Code:1Z0-497
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    Which statement about CDB architecture is true?
    A. Oracle-supplied metadata resides only in the root container.
    B. A seed PDB can sometimes be opened for particular operations.
    C. Multiple PDBs with the same name can reside in the same CDB.
    D. A CDB can have an infinite number of PDBs.
    E. You can create common users in PDBs.
    Answer: A
    Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/server.121/e17633/cdbovrvw.htm#CNCPT89235
    QUESTION NO: 2
    As part of your Oracle Database 12c post-installation tasks, you run these commands:
    Cd $ORACLE_HOME/bin
    srvctl stop database -d myDb
    chopt enable dm
    srvctl start database -d myDb
    What does this do?
    A. It enables the Oracle Data Mining option in your Oracle binary files.
    B. It creates the Fast Recovery Area disk group.
    C. It generates Client Static Library.
    D. It configures one of the Oracle user accounts.
    E. It configures Oracle Net Services.
    F. It configures Oracle Messaging Gateway.
    Answer: A
    Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E16655_01/install.121/e17889/postinst.htm#RILIN1049 (see
    4.4)
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Which two statements about ADDM are true?
    A. Real-Time ADDM uses AWR snapshots of the last 10 minutes.
    B. Real-Time ADDM uses ASH recent activity from SGA data.
    C. Real-Time ADDM analyzes performance in a completely different fashion than regular ADDM.
    D. Regular ADDM uses AWR snapshots that are not yet purged.
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 4
    Which two statements are true about shared server sessions?
    A. No Program Global Area (PGA) is allocated for shared server processes.
    B. User Global Area is stored in System Global Area (SGA).
    C. Shared SQL Area is allocated from Program Global Area (PGA).
    D. Private SQL Area is allocated from Library Cache.
    E. Large Pool is used for SQL work areas.
    Answer: D
    Reference:
    http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B19306_01/server.102/b14220/memory.htm (see library
    cache)
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Which targets can be managed by using Enterprise Manager Cloud Control?
    A. Hosts and databases
    B. Hosts, databases, and application servers
    C. Application servers and web applications
    D. Databases, Oracle Management Server (OMS), and Oracle Management Repository (OMR)
    E. Databases, application servers, and web applications
    F. Hosts, databases, application servers, web applications, OMS, and OMR
    Answer: A
    Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/oem/framework-infra/wp-em12c-security-bestpracticesv2-1493383.pdf (page 3, second bulleted point, last couple of sentences)

300-209 exam study guide

300-209 exam study guide

  • Code:300-209
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    Which two are characteristics of GETVPN? (Choose two.)
    A. The IP header of the encrypted packet is preserved
    B. A key server is elected among all configured Group Members
    C. Unique encryption keys are computed for each Group Member
    D. The same key encryption and traffic encryption keys are distributed to all Group Members
    Answer: A,D
    QUESTION NO: 2
    A company has decided to migrate an existing IKEv1 VPN tunnel to IKEv2. Which two are valid configuration constructs on a Cisco IOS router? (Choose two.)
    A. crypto ikev2 keyring keyring-name
    peer peer1
    address 209.165.201.1 255.255.255.255
    pre-shared-key local key1
    pre-shared-key remote key2
    B. crypto ikev2 transform-set transform-set-name
    esp-3des esp-md5-hmac
    esp-aes esp-sha-hmac
    C. crypto ikev2 map crypto-map-name
    set crypto ikev2 tunnel-group tunnel-group-name
    set crypto ikev2 transform-set transform-set-name
    D. crypto ikev2 tunnel-group tunnel-group-name
    match identity remote address 209.165.201.1
    authentication local pre-share
    authentication remote pre-share
    E. crypto ikev2 profile profile-name
    match identity remote address 209.165.201.1
    authentication local pre-share
    authentication remote pre-share
    Answer: A,E
    QUESTION NO: 3
    A. authenticates group members
    B. manages security policy
    C. creates group keys
    D. distributes policy/keys
    E. encrypts endpoint traffic
    F. receives policy/keys
    G. defines group members
    Answer: A,B,C,D
    QUESTION NO: 4
    Where is split-tunneling defined for remote access clients on an ASA?
    A. Group-policy
    B. Tunnel-group
    C. Crypto-map
    D. Web-VPN Portal
    E. ISAKMP client
    Answer: A
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Which of the following could be used to configure remote access VPN Host-scan and pre-login policies?
    A. ASDM
    B. Connection-profile CLI command
    C. Host-scan CLI command under the VPN group policy
    D. Pre-login-check CLI command
    Answer: A

1Z0-485 question and answer

1Z0-485 question and answer

  • Code:1Z0-485
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  • QUESTION NO: 1
    Exadata Database Machine offers an Intelligent Platform Management Interface for the various components in the Exadata product. Which option is true?
    A. IPMI can be used to remotely start and stop servers.
    B. IPMI can be used to remotely log in to the operating system.
    C. IPMI commands can be executed by using SNMP traps.
    D. IPMI settings can be secured by backing up the Oracle Linux installation on the storage system.
    Answer: A
    Explanation:
    IPMI – short for Intelligent Platform Management Interface – is an interface standard
    that allows remote management of a server from another using standardized interface. The servers in the Exadata Database Machine follow that. It’s not an Exadata command but rather a general Linux one.
    To power on a cell or database server, issue this from another server:
    # ipmitool -H prolcel01-ilom -U root chassis power on
    To stop a server, use the shutdown command. To stop immediately and keep it down, i.e. Not reboot, execute:# shutdown -h -y now
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which is the best location to point your customer to, for finding the latest Exadata patches?
    A. owner’s guide
    B. Patch database in MyOracle Support
    C. MyOracle Support note 888828.1
    D. MyOracle Support for database patches, ULN for OS patches, and Sun Support for Server and InfiniBand patches.
    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Before starting, we would like to share and note here two documents from My
    Oracle Support, aka metalink. These notes must be the first place that you need to go to review before patching the Exadata environment.
    * (B) Database Machine and Exadata Storage Server 11g Release 2 (11.2) Supported Versions (Doc ID. 888828.1)
    - This is for the second and third generation (V2 and X2) for Oracle Exadata, using Sun hardware.
    * Database Machine and Exadata Storage Server 11g Release 1 (11.1) Supported Versions (Doc ID. 835032.1)
    * – This is for the first generation (V1) for Oracle Exadata, using HP hardware.
    QUESTION NO: 3
    A customer has three databases named CC. FIN, and DW. The CC database is for their
    CallCenter. Even a slight decrease in the response time of the database would mean more people “on hold” in their data center. The orders received through the CallCenter are stored in the Finance (FIN) database. Both databases, CC and FIN, serve as sources for the Data Warehouse (DW) database. All databases use the same Automatic Storage Management (ASM) diskgroup and therefore, the same physical disks on Exadata storage. The customer wants to dynamically control the resources that are available for the CallCenter database because this has direct impact on their operations?
    Which option should be implemented?
    A. DBRM on the CC database
    B. DBRM on all the databases
    C. IORM, because DBRM cannot be changed for an existing session
    D. IORM and DBRM
    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    Using the Database Resource Manager, you can:
    Distribute available processing resources by allocating percentages of CPU time to different users and applications. In a data warehouse, a higher percentage may be given to ROLAP (relational on-line analytical processing) applications than to batch jobs.
    QUESTION NO: 4
    Consider the following software changes that are performed manually on a Linux server:
    1. Changes for Linux kernel firewall configuration
    2. Changes for custom performance monitoring tools
    3. Changes for security scan tools
    4. Changes for Linux system performance optimization
    Which of the software changes listed are permitted on Exadata Storage Servers?
    A. 1, 2, 3, and 4
    B. only 3 ‘
    C. none
    D. only 2
    E. only 1 and 2
    F. only 2 and 3
    Answer: E
    Explanation:
    1: The Storage Server Patch is responsible for keeping our cell nodes always up-todate,
    fixing possible problems, and this patch includes different component patches, like kernel
    patches, firmware, operation system, etc… for the Storage Server.
    Incorrect:
    3,4: security scan tools changes and Linux system performance optimization changes would be on the database server.
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Which two statements are true about enabling write-back flash cache?
    A. When enabling write-back flash cache in a non rolling manner, it is important to ensure that asmdeactivatonoutcome is set to YES and asmModestatus is set to ONLINE for all grid disks.
    B. Before using write-back flash cache, you need to verify the minimum required versions.
    C. Before write back-flash cache is enabled, you need to drop the Flash Cache first.
    D. The setting flashCacheMode should be set to writeback by updating cellinit.ora and restarting cellsrv.
    E. When enabling write-back flash cache in a rolling manner, dcli should be used to inactivate the grid disks on all cells first.
    Answer: B,C
    Explanation:
    B: Exadata storage version 11.2.3.2.1 is the minimum version required to use this
    write back flash cache option.
    C: Steps for Enabling Write back flash cache:
    First of all, you don’t need the stop CRS or database (This is ROLLING method) ,you can do it cell by cell.
    * drop flashcache
    * Be sure asmdeactivationoutcome is YES is before disabling grid disk

1Z0-482 exam study guide

1Z0-482 exam study guide

  • Code:1Z0-482
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    Which two ODI knowledge modules are included in the Application Adapter for Hadoop?
    A. IKM Oracle Incremental Update
    B. IKM Hive Transform
    C. IKM SQL to File Append
    D. IKM FiletoHive
    Answer: B,D
    Reference:http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E27101_01/doc.10/e27365/odi.htm
    QUESTION NO: 2
    When working with delimited flat files, is it possible to enforce primary key on a flat file using a CKM?
    A. No, it is not possible to enforce constraints on some technologies such as flat files and JMS queues.
    B. No, it is not possible to enforce constraints on any technology.
    C. Yes, it is possible also to forward-engineer it to the flat file definition.
    D. Yes, but you have to save it as a fixed file.
    Answer: A
    QUESTION NO: 3
    You want to add a new CDC subscriber in ODI after you have started the Journal process, what steps do you need to go through in order to use this new subscriber?
    A. Drop Journal, remove existing subscribers, add a new subscriber, start Journal, and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
    B. Drop Journal,add anew subscriber, start Journal, and remove the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
    C. Drop Journal, add a new subscriber, start Journal, and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
    D. Add anew subscriber and edit the default Journalizing filter in your Interfaces
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 4
    You are loading a file into a database but the file name is unknown at design time and will have to be passed dynamically to a Package at run time; how do you achieve this?
    A. Create a variable, use it in Topology at the File dataserver-level, and add it to a package as a Declare Variable step
    B. Create a variable, use it in Topology at the File dataserver-level, and add it to a package as a Set Variable step
    C. Create a variable, use it as the Resource Name of the File datastore, and add it to a package as a Declare Variable step
    D. Create a variable, use it as the Resource Name of the File datastore, and add it to a package as a Set Variable step
    Answer: D
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Select the two correct statements about the Date Profiler.
    A. It can profile string dates written in a variety of formats, such as DD/MM/YYYY or
    MM/DD/YYYY.
    B. It provides a distribution for the day in the year, such as February 21, regardless of the year.
    C. It allows the EDQ user to define a valid range of dates.
    D. By clicking a date in blue, the user can drill down to the records that carried that value.
    E. It rejects February 29 as an invalid date.
    Answer: A,D

1Z0-474 question and answer

1Z0-474 question and answer

  • Code:1Z0-474
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    When configuring multiple-choice prescreening questions, what is an important consideration?
    A. Include an “Out” such as Not Applicable, None, or None of the Above.
    B. Do not make multiple-choice questions required on the questionnaire.
    C. Do not mix requirements and assets on a multiple-choice question.
    D. Only use multiple-choice questions for legal requirements or certifications.
    Answer: A
    QUESTION NO: 2
    What are the three types of questions that can be Implemented In the construction of a Jobspecific prescreening question?
    A. Single Answer
    B. Multiple Choice
    C. Text
    D. Rating Scale
    E. Ranking
    Answer: A,B,C
    Explanation:
    A:Example:
    How many years of experience do you have in Java programming.
    B: Example:
    Indicate which computer applications you have used to perform your job duties in the past. Select all that apply.
    C: Example:
    Please specify the crimes you were convicted for as well as any details”.
    A maximum of 256 characters can be entered.
    QUESTION NO: 3
    When building a Career Section, in order to preview it, which area within the Career Section would you access?
    A. Application Flow Properties
    B. Career Section URL
    C. Career Section Properties
    D. Career Portal Pages
    E. Career Section Preview
    Answer: E
    Explanation: Viewing Candidates Matching a Requisition
    Prerequisite
    A user type permission grants users access to this feature.
    The requisition must be posted on a career section.
    Steps
    1. In the requisition file, select the Posting and Sourcing tab.
    2. In the Career Sections section, click Preview Matching Candidates.
    Result
    The Posting Requisitions – Filter Matching Candidates window displays candidates matching the requisition.
    QUESTION NO: 4
    Your client requires the ability to capture multiple payroll allowances as part of a candidate offer.
    What design option best supports this requirements?
    A. Create Offer UDFs for each Allowance category and associate each with the Offer.
    B. Create Candidate UDFs for each Allowance category and complete these prior to creating the Offer.
    C. Create Requisition UDFs for each Allowance category and associate these with the Requisition.
    D. Create a custom IUDS to list the Allowance categories.
    Answer: B
    Explanation:
    User-defined fields (UDF) can be created to collect information according to specific
    Organization requirements.
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Identify two reasons your Privacy Statement is displaying to some candidates but not to all
    candidates?
    A. The Privacy Statement content type is assigned to appear on only one career portal.
    B. The Privacy Statement is contextualized to display only for requisitions assigned to a given Location.
    C. The Privacy Statement is defined to appear before the application flow.
    D. The Privacy Statement has been deactivated.
    Answer: A,B

500-006 Practice Exam PDF

500-006 test online

  • Code:500-006
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    Which Cisco TelePresence C Series Codec command will move the on-screen display to monitor output 4?
    A. configuration video osd output: 4
    B. xconfiguration video osd output: 4
    C. command video osd output: 4
    D. xcommand video osd output: 4
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which menu on the Cisco TelePresence VCS should you refer to in order to verify that an
    endpoint has registered?
    A. Application
    B. Status
    C. Security
    D. Configuration
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 3
    After you change the IP address of a Cisco TelePresence Codec C90, you are unable to use Telnet or a browser to connect to that address. However, you are able to use ping to connect to the new address. What are the two possible causes? (Choose two.)
    A. The configuration failed and there is another device with the same address that responds to the ping.
    B. The codec disabled the Telnet and HTTP services after the IP address change.
    C. The codec needs to reboot after the IP address change in order to bind the services to the new address.
    D. The gatekeeper configuration failed and you need to set up the gatekeeper address and the discovery type again.
    Answer: A,C
    QUESTION NO: 4
    The camera remote control is not responding. What can an engineer check in order to determine if the camera remote control or the system is causing the problem?
    A. The monitor is on the right channel.
    B. The switch inside the remote control is switched on.
    C. The light flashes on the camera when a key is pressed.
    D. The batteries are correctly placed within the remote.
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Which two items should you check on the local Cisco TelePresence C Series Codec when audio is not received? (Choose two.)
    A. The microphone is plugged in.
    B. The microphone is turned on in the menus.
    C. The volume on the monitor is turned up.
    D. The far end is sending audio.
    Answer: C,D

500-007 exam online

500-007 exam online

  • Code:500-007
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    You have configured your Cisco TelePresence Codec C90 but discover unwanted noise during use. What best practice will help avoid this problem?
    A. Connect only one device at a time to an input and avoid daisy-chaining.
    B. Recycle the power on your system after adding each additional input.
    C. If you are not using an input, turn it off.
    D. Daisy-chain additional devices using a serial cable to provide separate power supplies.
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 2
    When using the Cisco TelePresence Touch panel with a Codec C90, which Administrator settings can you access?
    A. all of the same Administrator settings as when using the TRC5 remote
    B. a limited subset of the Administrator settings compared with using the TRC5 remote
    C. none of the Administrator settings
    D. only the Custom Video Layout settings
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 3
    You want to reconfigure the H.323 and SIP settings using the remote control on the Cisco
    TelePresence Codec C90. Which menu allows you to do this?
    A. Audio input levels
    B. IP settings
    C. Advanced configuration
    D. Protocol configuration
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 4
    What do you need to do before an endpoint can place or receive H.323 calls using a URI address?
    A. Register the endpoint to the SIP server.
    B. Register the endpoints to the gatekeeper.
    C. Register the endpoint to the gateway.
    D. Register the endpoint to the Cisco TelePresence MCU.
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 5
    If the user purchases the Cisco TelePresence Touch panel, which two statements are true?
    (Choose two.)
    A. Both the TRC5 remote control and the Touch panel can be used simultaneously.
    B. Either the TRC5 remote control or the Touch panel can be used, but not both simultaneously.
    C. The Touch panel should be used to make calls, but the TRC5 remote control should be used to configure the unit.
    D. The web interface can be used to configure the unit.
    Answer: B,D

500-006 test online

500-006 test online

  • Code:500-006
  • Click Here: more information
  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    Which Cisco TelePresence C Series Codec command will move the on-screen display to monitor output 4?
    A. configuration video osd output: 4
    B. xconfiguration video osd output: 4
    C. command video osd output: 4
    D. xcommand video osd output: 4
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which menu on the Cisco TelePresence VCS should you refer to in order to verify that an
    endpoint has registered?
    A. Application
    B. Status
    C. Security
    D. Configuration
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 3
    After you change the IP address of a Cisco TelePresence Codec C90, you are unable to use Telnet or a browser to connect to that address. However, you are able to use ping to connect to the new address. What are the two possible causes? (Choose two.)
    A. The configuration failed and there is another device with the same address that responds to the ping.
    B. The codec disabled the Telnet and HTTP services after the IP address change.
    C. The codec needs to reboot after the IP address change in order to bind the services to the new address.
    D. The gatekeeper configuration failed and you need to set up the gatekeeper address and the discovery type again.
    Answer: A,C
    QUESTION NO: 4
    The camera remote control is not responding. What can an engineer check in order to determine if the camera remote control or the system is causing the problem?
    A. The monitor is on the right channel.
    B. The switch inside the remote control is switched on.
    C. The light flashes on the camera when a key is pressed.
    D. The batteries are correctly placed within the remote.
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Which two items should you check on the local Cisco TelePresence C Series Codec when audio is not received? (Choose two.)
    A. The microphone is plugged in.
    B. The microphone is turned on in the menus.
    C. The volume on the monitor is turned up.
    D. The far end is sending audio.
    Answer: C,D

010-151 practice test

010-151 practice test

  • Code:010-151
  • Click Here: more information
  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    Which method is a TCP/IP-based protocol for establishing and managing connections between IPbased storage devices, hosts, and clients?
    A. FCIP
    B. iFCP
    C. iSCSI
    D. FCoE
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which method does FCIP use to enable connectivity of geographically distributed Fibre Channel SANs over IP?
    A. routing
    B. tunneling
    C. handshaking
    D. transporting
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Which important feature on the front end is provided to the clients by multiple servers that access the same storage devices across the SAN?
    A. recovery
    B. redundancy
    C. resiliency
    D. security
    E. storage
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 4
    The Ethernet specification details several different fiber optic media types. What is the wire transmission speed for 100BASE-FX Ethernet?
    A. 10 Mb/s
    B. 100 Mb/s
    C. 1000 Mb/s
    D. 10000 Mb/s
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector?
    A. dual-mode
    B. single-mode
    C. straight-mode
    D. multi-mode
    E. subscriber-mode
    Answer: B