Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter CompTIA 220-801 cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter CompTIA 220-801 cert24
Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter CompTIA 220-801 cert24

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following is a public IP address?

A. 10.0.0.1
B. 62.10.1.1
C. 172.16.0.1
D. 192.168.1.1

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following ports MUST be open to connect to a PC using RDP?

A. 21
B. 80
C. 443
D. 3389

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following is the MAXIMUM transfer speed of USB 2.0?

A. 100 Mbps
B. 400 Mbps
C. 420 Mbps
D. 480 Mbps

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following display connections has 15-pins?

A. RGB
B. VGA
C. DVI
D. HDMI

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following connector types is only used for Coaxial?

A. RJ-11
B. ST
C. F
D. RJ-45

Answer: C

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter CompTIA 220-802 cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter CompTIA 220-802 cert24
Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter CompTIA 220-802 cert24

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QUESTION NO: 1
A user is having trouble connecting to the Internet. Which of the following commands should a technician use, from the user’s workstation, to ensure that the workstation has a valid IP address?

A. NETSTAT
B. PING
C. IPCONFIG
D. TRACERT

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following operating systems supports full BitLocker functionality?

A. Windows XP
B. Windows 7 Professional
C. Windows Vista Home
D. Windows 7 Enterprise

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following protocols could a technician use to connect a smartphone to an email server? (Select TWO).

A. SMTP
B. POP3
C. HTTP
D. SNTP
E. ICMP

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following should a technician do FIRST to secure a mobile device?

A. Assign a passcode
B. Download updates
C. Disable GPS
D. Install antivirus

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5
When running Windows XP, which of the following would give a list of switches for the CHKDSK command?

A. chkdsk ~?
B. chkdsk :?
C. chkdsk /?
D. chkdsk \?

Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
What is the default value for the RIP garbagetime setting?

A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 180 seconds

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
Given router interfaces 10.0.0.1/24, 10.10.10.10/24, 192.168.0.1/24, and
192.168.255.254/24 on a Summit7i switch what will be the OSPF router ID given the
following command: config ospf routerid automatic?

A. 10.0.0.1/24
B. 10.10.10.10/24
C. 192.168.0.1/24
D. 192.168.255.254/24

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which command would you use to configure VLAN corporate with IP address
192.168.0.1/16?

A. config vlan corporate ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16
B. config ipaddress corporate vlan 192.168.0.1/16
C. config ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16 vlan corporate
D. config ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16 corporate vlan

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4
VLAN aggregation allows multiple sub-VLANs to share a single IP subnet.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5
How do you disable Split Horizon?

A. disable rip splithorizon noadvertise
B. unconfig rip splithorizon
C. disable rip splithorizon
D. unconfig rip splithorizon noadvertise

Answer: C

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter IBM 000-976 cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter IBM 000-976 cert24
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QUESTION NO: 1
What is the correct communication object type and attribute for creating an Enterprise Extender connection to another system?

A. A controller type *EE
B. A controller type *HPR
C. A virtual device type *EE
D. A virtual device type *HPR

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
A customer has a Power 520, serial number 10-12345. It is one of several systems managed by an HMC running Version 7 firmware at TCP/IP address 10.0.0.100. Which of the following describes how to produce a system plan for this system in file MYPLAN.sysplan?

A. Select system plans from left panel, then select Create System Plan.
In the pop-up window, fill in system plan name and description, click OK.
B. Select ‘Service Applications’ on the HMC and click the Create System Plan option.
In the pop-up window, click the line with 9406-520*1012345, and specify file MYPLAN in the file name prompt.
C. Launch SPT and click ‘Create New Plan.’
On the next panel, click the ‘Open an Existing System Plan.’
In the file prompt, specify https://10.0.0.100/sysplan.
After the system plan is loaded from the HMC, save to file MYPLAN.
D. Select ‘System Plans’ on the HMC, and then click the ‘Import…’ button.
On the pop-up window, click the line with 9406-520*1012345.
When the import completes, click the ‘Save…’ button and specify file MYPLAN in the file name prompt.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
An administrator has been directed to create a new DNS server instance named ‘ABC’ on an IBM i 6.1 partition. Which of the following overviews correctly describe how to do this?

A. Open a browser to IBM Systems Director Navigator for IBMi on the partition.
Navigate to Network > Server > DNS.
Select the ‘create’ action and follow the prompts.
B. From a command line, run the CRTTCPDNS command to create the ABC instance definition.
Use SEU to edit QUSRSYS/QDNSTBL(ABC) to edit the DNS records for the instance.
C. In System i Navigator, under the system to host the DNS, navigate to Network > Servers > DNS.
Right-click on DNS, then select ‘New Name Server’.
Follow the prompts.
D. From a command line, use STRQSH to start the PASE command prompt
Run the script: crdns -n ABC.
Use the Edit File (EDTF) command on IFS file /QIBM/UserData/OS400/DNS/ABC.TBL to enter the new DNS records.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following recovery limit settings allows a communications line to make infinite
recovery attempts?

A. Recovery limit attempts (0), Time interval in minutes (1)
B. Recovery limit attempts (1), Time interval in minutes (0)
C. Recovery limit attempts (*NOMAX), Time interval in minutes (0)
D. Recovery limit attempts (0), Time interval in minutes (*NOMAX)

Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
What is the minimum number of servers for a distributed configuration?

A. One server; master server
B. Two servers; master and crawler servers
C. Three servers; master, crawler, and search servers
D. Four servers; master, crawler, document processor, and search servers

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
Which is NOT a supported operating system?

A. AIX 5.3 (32-bit)
B. AIX 6.1 (64-bit)
C. Red Hat Enterprise Linux Advanced Server (32-bit)
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Enterprise (32-bit)

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
When you map the common analysis structure to the index, what are you determining?

A. which users can invoke the REST API to find documents
B. which custom annotators will run in the document processing pipeline
C. the structure of the facet tree that will show up in the text miner application
D. which analysis results are indexed to enable search and text mining on them

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
Which documents from the collection are used to create the clustering proposal?

A. All of the documents in the index are used.
B. A random sample of the number that you specify
C. The first 1000 documents that were added to the index.
D. A round-robin alphabetically ordered sampling from each different crawler

Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following uses a proprietary SPIPE protocol to encapsulate unsecured HTTP traffic?

A. PA Agent
B. HIPS Agent
C. DLP Agent
D. McAfee Agent

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following is a core architecture component of ePO?

A. Internet Explorer
B. Event Parser
C. Active Directory
D. Agent Handler

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
What option can be configured in the On-Access General Policy that is not an option in the local VirusScan console?

A. Boot sectors
B. Floppy during shutdown
C. Enable on-access scanning at system startup
D. Enable on-access scanning when the policy is enforced

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4

Which of the following system properties does the ePO server write to the database? Select the three that apply.

A. Total disk space
B. Total physical memory
C. Last communication
D. VirusScan version
E. McAfee agent version

Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION NO: 5
To ensure that a Rogue System Detection Sensor is not installed on a managed system, what action needs to be performed?

A. Add the system to the Exception List
B. Add the system to the Blacklist
C. Add the system as Ignored
D. Add the system as Managed

Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
A small college is considering a cloud environment where the infrastructure is hosted by a thirdparty provider and shared with colleges and universities with similar research needs. All of the colleges and universities share the associated costs. Which type of a cloud delivery model does this scenario represent?

A. Community cloud
B. Private cloud
C. Public cloud
D. Hybrid cloud

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
Which HP software offering or tool consists of optimized and tested templates for use with an HP CloudSystem to automate the deployment application in the cloud?

A. HP Cloud Content Delivery
B. HP CloudSystem Enterprise
C. HP Cloud Service Automation
D. HP Cloud Maps

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which HP software enables multi-site Matrix OE recovery management for HP CloudSystem Matrix that uses the HP P6000 EVA storage solution?

A. HP Navigator
B. HP data Protector
C. HP ServiceGuard
D. HP Continuous Access
E. HP Business Copy

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
What is the purpose of HP SiteScope within the HP CloudSystem Matrix Solution?

A. Provision application
B. Monitor availability and performance
C. Secure the environment
D. Provision infrastructure

Answer: A

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter HP HP2-Z12 cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter HP HP2-Z12 cert24
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QUESTION NO: 1
Which area of the network is considered the backbone?

A. data center
B. core
C. distribution layer
D. LAN access layer

Answer: B

Explanation:
The core is the backbone of the network, a central or common point where traffic flows between users, their workgroups, and shared resources. Most inter-workgroup traffic flows through the core, so it is important that networking devices located in the core introduce little or no delay (latency). Core switches are usually wirespeed , highly available devices.

QUESTION NO: 2
Which device forwards network traffic based only on Layer 2 information?

A. router
B. switch
C. hub
D. firewall

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
Which switch is specifically designed for networks that require basic connectivity and have little or no IT support?

A. fixed-port switch
B. light Layer 3 switch
C. modular switch
D. unmanaged switch

Answer: D

Explanation:
Unmanaged switch-A switch that enables Ethernet devices to communicate but does not have a management interface. You simply connect the switch to other devices, and the network is operational. Unmanaged switches are intended for networks that require basic connectivity and have little or no IT support. They are cost-effective and offer intuitive and simple configuration.

QUESTION NO: 4
Which HP A Series switches provide Layer 2 functionality and a Web browser interface but no CLI?

A. HP A5800 Series switches
B. HP NJ2000GIntelliJack switches
C. HP A3600-E1 Series switches
D. HP A3100 Series switches

Answer: B

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter Oracle 1Z0-151 cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter Oracle 1Z0-151 cert24
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1Z0-151 Oracle Fusion Middleware 11g: Build Applications with Oracle Forms Exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION NO: 1
When tabbing through items in the Employees form, users should not be able to navigate to the Salary text item. If they need to update the item, they will have to explicitly navigate to it by using the mouse.
Which property setting accomplishes this requirement?

A. Enabled = Yes; Keyboard Navigable = No
B. Enabled = No; Keyboard Navigable = Yes
C. Enabled = Yes; Keyboard Navigable = Yes
D. Enabled = No; Keyboard Navigable = No
E. Automatic Skip = Yes

Answer: C

Explanation: * Keyboard Navigable property
Description
Determines whether the end user or the application can place the input focus in the item during default navigation. When set to Yes for an item, the item is navigable. When set to No, Form Builder skips over the item and enters the next navigable item in the default navigation sequence.
The default navigation sequence for items is defined by the order of items in the Object Navigator.
Applies to all items except chart items and display items
* Default
Yes
Usage Notes
If Enabled or Visible is set to No (PROPERTY_FALSE for runtime), then the items?or item
Instance Keyboard navigable property is effectively false. At runtime, when the Enabled property is set to PROPERTY_FALSE, the Keyboard_Navigable property is also set to
PROPERTY_FALSE. However, if the Enabled property is subsequently set back to
PROPERTY_TRUE, the keyboard Navigable property is NOT set to PROPERTY_TRUE, and must be changed explicitly.

QUESTION NO: 2
You have a text item in your form named Object1. You want to create Object2 as an exact
duplicate of Object1. You want to be able to change the properties of Object2. However if you change Object1, you do not want Object2 to change.
Which method of reusing Object1 would be best for these requirements?

A. Copying Object1
B. Subclassing Object1
C. Creating a property class from Object1
D. Putting Object1inan Object library
E. Referencing Object1ina PL/SQL library

Answer: A

Explanation:
When you copy an object, a separate, unique version of that object is created in the target module.
Any objects owned by the copied object also get copied. Changes made to a
copied object in the source module do not affect the copied object in the target module.

QUESTION NO: 3
The Orders form has four blocks. The Orders and Order_items block are on the CV_Order content canvas; the inventories block items are on the CV_inventories content canvas; and Control block buttons are on the CV_Buttons toolbar canvas. All buttons have mouse Navigate set to No.
The Order_Items block is a detail of Orders. The inventories block is a detail of Order_Items, showing the stock of the selected product.
There is a button in the Control block with a When-Button-Pressed trigger:
IF GET_CANVAS_PROPERTY(:SYSTEM.cursor_item, item_canvas) = ‘CV_ORDER’ THEN
GO_BLOCK (‘inventories’)
ELSE
GO_BLOCK(‘orders’);
END IF;
When you run the form and click the button, navigation does not occur, and the form displays the runtime error “ FRM-41053: Cannot find Canvas: invalid ID.?What should you do to correct this problem?

A. Change the sequence of blocksinthe Object Navigator
B. Chang the Mouse Navigator property of the button to yes
C. inthe first line of code, change the built-into GET_ITEM_PROPERTY
D. inthe first line of code, change the system variable to: SYSTEM.CURSOR_CANVAS.
E. inthe first line of code, change the CV_ORDER to lowercase
F. Chang the argument to the GO_BLOCK built-ins to uppercase

Answer: D

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Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter Citrix 1Y0-A15 cert24

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1Y0-A15 Engineering a Citrix Virtualization Solution our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which three items are risks that a Citrix Enterprise Engineer should be aware of during the
implementation phase of a XenApp project? (Choose three.)

A. Improper load evaluator configuration
B. Inconsistent server naming convention
C. Improper terminal server profile design
D. Inconsistent user account naming convention
E. Mixed brands of user devices running XenApp Plugin
F. Inconsistent set of printer drivers across the environment

Answer: A,C,F

QUESTION NO: 2
Scenario: After gathering basic requirements from Nether Tech Inc. administrators and IT
personnel, an engineer must decide whether a virtual or physical implementation is best suited for the environment. Several key requirements are listed below. Peak time is gam; approximately 4,000-4,500 logon attempts will be made then. Most users will have the same core applications such as Microsoft Office and Adobe Reader. Some custom applications need to be updated quarterly. Remote users and traveling field agents will need secure remote access to the environment. Several applications in the environment CANNOT co-exist together. Some applications will NOT run on an application server. Based on these requirements, which kind of implementation should the engineer recommend?

A. A virtualized implementation that leveragesXenDesktop Platinum
B. A physical server farm that leverages XenApp on physical servers
C. A physical server farm that leverages XenApp and Provisioning Services
D. A virtualized server implementation that leverages XenServer and XenApp

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
Scenario: The new design document for Nether Tech Inc.’s environment calls for the inclusion of several new Citrix products in addition to XenApp. XenServer will be implemented as the virtualization platform. Provisioning Services will be used to rapidly provision desktop and server images. XenOesktop will be used to publish and manage client desktops. Nether Tech Inc.’s existing environment consists of a DHCP server, a DNS server, a domain controller, several managed switches with spanning tree protocol and several routers. Which modification should the Citrix Engineer recommend from a networking standpoint in order for all of the new Citrix products to be highly optimized?

A. Enable task offload on the virtual machine.
B. Place each Citrix component in its own subnet.
C. Configure the DHCP server to use ports 60 and 67.
D. Enable the spanning tree fast link (PortFast) option on all Provisioning Services switch ports.

Answer: D

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