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QUESTION 2

What is true of an interaction?

A. An interaction always contains states and transitions.

B. An interaction can be used as types for ports.

C. An interaction is defined by a use case.

D. The semantics of an interaction are defined by event traces.

Answer: D

QUESTION 3

What can be captured by use cases? (Choose two)

A. changes in state over time of the system

B. data and control flow of the system

C. user-interface specification of the system

D. requirements of the system

E. behaviors offered by the system

Answer: DE

QUESTION 4

What does the symbol in the exhibit represent in UML 2.0 activity diagrams?

A. control node

B. behavior

C. state

D. object node

E. activity

F. action

Answer: D

QUESTION 5

What constraint applies to a stop in a UML interaction diagram?

A. No other event occurrences may appear below a stop on a given lifeline in a

simple interaction.

B. If there is a stop on one lifeline, there should be stops on all other lifelines within

an interaction.

C. Only one stop may occur in one interaction.

D. If one lifeline has a stop in one interaction, it should have stops in every interaction that it appears.

Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1

What kinds of arrows connect to central buffers?

A. control flows

B. unidirectional associations

C. object flows

D. state transitions

E. message passing

F. dependencies

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2

What does a loop node consist of?

A. clauses

B. partitions

C. parameters

D. bodyPart nodes

E. behaviors

F. guards

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3

What is a combined fragment?

A. more than one interaction combined in an interaction overview diagram

B. an interaction occurrence covering more than one lifeline

C. the combination of decomposed lifelines

D. a construct with interaction operands and an interaction operator

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4

What is NOT true of a CreateObjectAction?

A. classifier must be abstract

B. classifier cannot be abstract

C. classifier cannot be an association class

D. output pin has multiplicity [1..1]

E. type of the output pin is the classifier.

F. output pin has multiplicity [1..*]

Answer: A,F

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Posted on May 25, 2013 by admin

Exam Number/Code : HP0-Y32

Exam Name : Design and Troubleshooting Open Standard Networks

Version : Demo

QUESTION 1

Click the Exhibit button.

You install two E5400 zl Series switches and connect them with a two-port static trunk. All hosts on both switches are in VLAN 20. However, some hosts on Core 1 cannot ping some hosts on Core 2 and vice versa. All hosts can ping all hosts on their own switch. Event logs on the two switches do not show significant errors.What should you do to determine the cause of this connectivity issue? (Select three.)

A. Use traceroute to determine which device is dropping the ping packets.

B. Verify the trunk configuration on each core switch.

C. Change the IP address for the default VLAN on Core 2 so that it is in the same subnet as

the default VLAN on Core 1.

D. Verify physical connectivity between the switches.

E. Use LLDP to check the identities of the devices and their neighbors.

Answer: BDE

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QUESTION 2

Click the Exhibit button.

A user adds an untagged link between switch 20c and 30b. What is the impact of the user’s actions?

A. Internet connectivity to subnet 20 users is broken.

B. STP Root Bridge of Subnet 20 moves.

C. All Subnet 20 traffic is routed through Subnet 30.

D. STP alternate path selection remains unchanged.

Answer: B

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Posted on May 25, 2013 by admin

Exam Number/Code : HP2-E38

Exam Name : Selling HP SMB Solutions

Version : Demo

QUESTION 1

What is the HP Infrastructure Operating Environment?

A. a way to control IT resources through one main console and reduce server provisioning time by at least 25%

B. a way to drive maximum energy efficiency in the data center

C. a shared service engine that provisions and adapts application environments in real-time

D. the central operating system for all HP servers

Answer: A

QUESTION 2

What new size of Unix server Blade has been enabled by the “Scalable Blade Link”, which provides up to 2.5x compute density compared to traditional rack mount servers?

A. 4-socket

B. 8-socket

C. 2-socket

D. 16-socket

Answer: B

QUESTION 3

Which HP services will help your customers to reduce energy waste and overall data center capital costs? (Select four.)

A. Critical Facilities

B. Technical Services

C. Proactive Select

D. Always On

E. Energy Efficiency

F. Education and Training

G. Mission Critical Services

Answer: CDEG

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Posted on May 25, 2013 by admin

Exam Number/Code : HP2-E43

Exam Name : Selling HP SMB Solutions

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

In response to business growth, some companies add new IT hardware without having a clear IT strategy or plan to keep up with that growth. What is this IT trend called?

A. cloud computing

B. consolidation

C. sprawl

D. business protection

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2

What are small and midmarket companies less likely to have on their websites than enterprise companies?

A. an annual report for the shareholders

B. details about the company’s products and services

C. company news

D. a distinctive brand

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3

Determining if a customer is open to a meeting with HP and an HP solution is most closely aligned with which step in the sales cycle?

A. Understanding the Customer Environment

B. Closing the Deal

C. Generating a Customer Offer

D. Qualifying the Opportunity

Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 1

What determines which value an object flow edge chooses to move from the source? (Choose two)

A. transformation

B. upper bound

C. ordering

D. effect

E. weight

F. selection

Answer: D,F

QUESTION NO: 2

A ReplyAction always follows what action?

A. AcceptCallAction

B. AcceptEventAction

C. ReadExtentAction

D. CreateLinkObjectAction

E. StartOwnedBehaviorAction

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3

When a component is deleted, what happens to objects in a component’s namespace?

A. objects are deleted

B. only those objects that participate in shared aggregations are retained

C. objects continue to exist

D. contents of the component’s namespace are promoted to its superclass

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4

In planning to describe (in UML) a middleware software package, a company recently acquired, which class is most likely created to describe the package itself?

A. Manifestation

B. Device

C. DeploymentSpecification

D. ExecutionEnvironment

E. Artifact

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5

What does a port specification on a trigger do?

A. restrict the trigger to events arriving through a specific port

B. delay the creation of the parts of an encapsulated classifier until a specified request is received

C. create a new port after a classifier has been instantiated

D. send a request to a port

Answer: A

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Posted on May 25, 2013 by admin

QUESTION NO: 1

Which two steps are part of the View Composer installation process? (Choose two.)

A. select the Enable View Composer checkbox in the View Administrator

B. install the View Composer on the vCenter Server system

C. register View Composer service on the Windows system

D. configure ODBC connection to the View Composer database

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 2

The View Composer Database stores information about which three components and connections? (Choose three.)

A. Active Directory Connections

B. View Connection Broker Connections

C. Replicas created by the View Composer

D. Disposable data disk created by View Composer

E. Linked-clone desktops deployed by View Composer

Answer: A,C,E

QUESTION NO: 3

Which two platforms are supported by VMware View Composer in a VMware View 5 environment? (Choose two.)

A. VMware vCenter 4.0 Update 3 running on Windows Server 2008 R2

B. VMware vCenter 4.1 Update 1 running on Windows XP Pro 64-bit

C. VMware vCenter 4.1 Update 1 running on Windows Server 2003 64-bit

D. VMware vCenter 5.0 running on Windows Server 2008 R2

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 4

What are three supported Database Servers for VMware View Composer in a VMware View 5 environment? (Choose three.)

A. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express with vCenter Server 4.1 U1

B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express with vCenter Server 5.0

C. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 SP3 Standard with vCenter Server 5.0

D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 Express with vCenter 4.0 U3

E. Microsoft SQL Server 2008 R2 Express with vCenter Server 5.0

Answer: A,C,E

QUESTION NO: 5

What is the proper syntax to use when adding a domain user to the View Composer configuration?

A. DOMAIN\USER

B. DOMAIN.COM\USER

C. OU=DOMAIN, CN=USER

D. [email protected]

Answer: B

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Posted on May 25, 2013 by admin

QUESTION 1

Fill in the blank with the appropriate PHP function. The_____________ function is used to replace the current session id with the new session id, and to keep information of the current session.

A. session_regenerate_id()

Answer: A

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QUESTION 2

Celina works as a Database Administrator for Tech Mart Inc. The company uses an Oracle database. The database contains a table named Employees. Following is the structure of the table: EmpID NUMBER (5) PRIMARY KEY EmpName VARCHAR2 (35) NOT NULL Salary NUMBER (9, 2) NOT NULL Commission NUMBER (4, 2) ManagerName VARCHAR2 (25) ManagerID NUMBER (5) Celina wants to display the names of employees and their managers, using a self join. Which of the following SQL statements will she use to accomplish this? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.

Choose two.

A. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName

FROM Employees e, Employeesm

WHERE e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;

B. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName

FROM Employees e INNER JOIN Employeesm

ON e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;

C. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName

FROM Employees e LEFT OUTER JOIN Employees m

ON e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;

D. SELECT e.EmpName, m.Ma nagerName

FROM Employees e SELF JOIN Employeesm

ON e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;

Answer: AB

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QUESTION 3

Which of the following actions may fail if you have exceeded your quota limit?

A. addTo()

B. send()

C. addBcc()

D. appendMessage()

Answer: D

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Exam Number/Code : ST0-141

Exam Name : Symantec Backup Exec 2012 Technical Assessment

Version : Demo

QUESTION NO: 1

Which Symantec Backup Exec 2012 default global scheduling option allows jobs to be cancelled without manual intervention?

A. job auto cancel after ‘x’ hours after its scheduled start time

B. kill the job if it is still running ‘x’ hours after its scheduled start time

C. terminate the job if it is still running ‘x’ hours if no data has incremented

D. cancel the job if it is still running ‘x’ hours after its scheduled start time

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2

In Symantec Backup Exec 2012, scheduled convert to virtual jobs can be configured to support which two sources? (Select two.)

A. all differential backups

B. all full backups

C. most recent snap

D. last incremental with changed block tracking enabled

E. most recent full backup

Answer: B,E

QUESTION NO: 3

Where are the Symantec Backup Exec Job Log files stored by default?

A. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec

B. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Data

C. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Logs

D. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Log

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4

For GRT operations, in which two instances must the default path for the TEMP directory specified in “Symantec Backup Exec 2012 > Configuration and settings > Backup Exec Settings > Granular Recovery Technology” be modified? (Select two.)

A. when the default path is the system volume

B. when the default path is a mapped drive letter

C. when the default path is NTFS

D. when the default path is FAT32

E. when the default path contains the Windows page file

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 5

A backup job failed with an access denied error message. Which option in the backup job property can be used to set the correct permissions?

A. verify credentials

B. user account credentials

C. validate credentials

D. test/edit credentials

Answer: D