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000-N55 IBM FileNet P8 System Implementation Technical Mastery Test v1

QUESTION NO: 1

Who can add custom classes or properties to a P8 repository?

A. IBM Software Services.

B. Accredited IBM business partners.

C. Customer IT personnel.

D. All of the above.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2

Which is the best way for custom applications to get information at runtime about the data model of a P8 system?

A. Read the repository database schema and mapping the table and column names to classes and properties.

B. Use P8 APIs to examine metadata objects like Class Descriptions and Property Descriptions.

C. Study IBM FileNet product documentation along with custom application functional

specifications.

D. Use IBM InfoSphere Master Data Management tools to discover relationships and data types.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

Which of the following is NOT TRUE for P8 event subscriptions?

A. Although the event subscription subsystem and the audit logging subsystem are not the same thing, there is a close relationship between them.

B. “Active content” refers to the ability to trigger activity within the system in response to changes made by users and applications. The users or applications need not be explicitly aware of the actions they are triggering.

C. Event handlers are selected from a pre-defined list of actions included in the P8 APIs.

D. A given event can trigger multiple event handlers for related or unrelated purposes.

Answer: C

4A0-103 Alcatel-Lucent Multi Protocol Label Switching

QUESTION NO: 1
You wish to advertise LDP labels for all local networks; which is the most effective policystatement to use?

A. from prefix-list direct
B. match local
C. from protocol direct
D. match protocol direct
E. from protocol local

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following indicates the path over which an LSP’s tail end router will return an RSVP RESV message?

A. The IGP FIB.
B. The Reservation State Block (RSB)
C. The Path State Block (PSB)
D. The opaque database.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following is defined by the following statement? All label mappings received from all peer LSRs are saved.

A. Conservative label retention
B. Liberal label retention.
C. Downstream on demand.
D. Downstream unsolicited.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following statements regarding LSP path configuration are true? (Choose three)

A. The path must include at least one hop.
B. The path may be used multiple times in a single LSP.
C. The path may comprise loose hop entries only.
D. The path must define the LSP’s tail end.
E. The path may be used for multiple LSPs.

Answer: C,E

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000-820 Rational Team Concert V4

QUESTION NO: 1

What are two types of work item approvals? (Choose two.)

A. approval

B. certification

C. review

D. validation

E. confirmation

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 2

Which attribute is used to assign a work item to a team area?

A. owner

B. category

C. component

D. stream

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

What is the Jazz Team Build component?

A. A component that provides build awareness to the team

B. A component that helps you create a team for a new project

C. A component that provides reporting capabilities from a data warehouse

D. A component that helps you manage versions of source files

Answer: A

000-N34 IBM Tealeaf Technical Mastery Test v1

QUESTION NO: 1

When Events fire, what happens:

A. A counter is incremented that tracks the occurrence of the Event for Reports

B. An Event value can be set and saved in the session data

C. Dimension values can be set and saved in the session data

D. All of the above

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2

What product makes it easy to build Scorecards and Dashboards?

A. cxReveal

B. cxResults

C. cxView

D. cxVerify

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3

Where would you set Events to be monitored by their standard deviation from historical averages?

A. Events

B. Hit Attributes

C. Dimensions

D. Top Movers

Answer: D

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000-470 IBM Unica Campaign V8.5

QUESTION NO: 1

A user needs to output data from a Unica Campaign flowchart and does not need to utilize the data within the flowchart. This can be done by creating and outputting the data to a:

A. fact table.

B. general table.

C. dimension table.

D. base record table.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2

A user has added a new Unica Campaign Attribute and would like to make that attribute available to the Cognos reports. To do this, the user needs to:

A. use the Reports SQL generator to update the existing reporting views.

B. use the Reports SQL generator to create new views which include the new attribute.

C. do nothing, once the new column is added the reports model is automatically updated.

D. use the Cognos application administrator to create a new data framework which includes the new attribute.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

A specialist is responsible for making sure that Unica Campaign flowcharts run successfully. If an error occurs, the specialist needs to be informed by email. Therefore, the specialist creates a batch script which interacts with the mail server and sends an email to the IT department helpdesk to be informed in case problems arise in a Campaign flowchart. Where can the specialist best relate to this script from within the Campaign flowchart? The specialist creates an outbound trigger, invokes the batch script in the trigger, and:

A. assigns a trigger in a mail list or call list process.

B. schedules a trigger to run on a case-by-case basis.

C. uses the eMessage process to send out these emails.

D. assigns it in the Advanced settings section on the Campaign flowchart and has the trigger run on Flowchart Run Error.

Answer: D

000-503 IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.3 Fundamentals

QUESTION NO: 1

Which statement is correct regarding the Hub Tivoli Enterprise Monitoring Server (TEMS) in an IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.3 environment?

A. There can only be one active Hub TEMS in each environment.

B. There can be more than one active Hub TEMS in each environment.

C. The number of needed Hub TEMS is determined by an updated file during installation.

D. The number of needed Hub TEMS is dependent on the number of active links to agents.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2

Which statement is true regarding Tivoli Enterprise Portal Server V6.3 (TEPS)?

A. Oracle is now a supported database for TEPS.

B. Authorization policy enforcement is enabled by default.

C. IBM Tivoli Monitoring V6.3 strongly recommends the upgrade to Java 6.

D. The dashboard data provider is optionally enabled during the TEPS configuration.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3

Jar for Service Management accelerates deployment, integration, and workflow automation across which tools?

A. Only IBM tools

B. Only third-party tools

C. Only IBM and partnertools

D. IBM, partner, and third-partytools

Answer: D

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000-427 IBM System z Solution Sales V3

QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following is an IBM Reference Architecture?

A. Business Continuity
B. System z10 BC
C. BRCS
D. GDPS

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
A university physics department issues a RFP for a large system for research purposes. The System z Sales Specialist has never met this group previously. Which of the following describes the likely financial justification process?

A. The department will conduct a study of all the operating systems available
B. The department will compare distributed, clustered, and centralized implementations and decide based on TCA
C. The department will compare communication sub systems, and LAN topologies between all vendors
D. The department will purchase a system to meet performance needs at the best price and consider the total cost of ownership

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3

When discussing the flexibility of System z family of servers with a prospective customer, which of the following is a key aspect?

A. Binary compatibility between servers
B. Hot pluggable processor and memory boards
C. ConsistentCoD features with entire family
D. Ability to interchange features between systems

Answer: A

000-428 IBM System z Technical Support V3

QUESTION NO: 1
A customer has a System z10 installed for over a month The customer calls IBM rep, mentions that he has a problem with his system. What corrective action should be taken to help customer?

A. Get the Hardware Installation team involved
B. Go to the Customer site and resolve the problem.
C. Call the customer on phone and walk them thru the PMR process to resolve the problem
D. Refer the customer back to the Sales Team

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
Which temporary Capacity on Demand offering is NOT permitted to increase capacity by more than 100% of the purchased permanent capacity?

A. Capacity Backup
B. Capacity for Planned Events
C. On/Off Capacity on Demand
D. Disaster Event on Demand

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
When building the image profiles for a large system, the client should be concerned with the size requirements for which of the following?

A. Extended CommonSave Area (ECSA)
B. Expanded Storage
C. CommonSave Area (CSA)
D. Hardware Systems Area (HSA)

Answer: D

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000-424 IBM eserver zseries sales,version1

QUESTION NO: 1

Which of the following will HP most likely stress when discussing the IBM eServer zSeries solution with the customer?

A. zSeries virtualization

B. zSeries costs

C. zSeries vitality

D. zSeries system availability

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2

A customer wants to do a server consolidation. Which of the following can assist with the evaluation?

A. Scorpion studies

B. CP2000

C. zPCR

D. Snapshot

E. Scorpion studies

Answer: A,E

QUESTION NO: 3

Which of the following is the primary function served by the zAAP feature?

A. It sends bulk data to a designated storage device.

B. It converts an application from 31-bit to 64-bit architecture.

C. It is used to process high priority transactions.

D. It is dedicated to processing JAVA workloads.

Answer: D

000-426 IBM System z Technical Support

QUESTION NO: 1

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the IBM System z SAPR guide?

A. Provide information on product details

B. Mitigate potential installation issues before hardware installation

C. Determine IBM resources available for post-sales support

D. Document pricing and contract information on a sale

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2

A customer created a z/VM with a Linux environment. After installation, the customer notices that some Linux applications are not running as fast as expected. A decision is made to tune the system because of these performance problems. Which of the following must be done before making tuning changes to the system or workload?

A. Provide additional memory in the z/VM / Linux LPAR

B. Upgrade z/VM and Linux to the latest releases

C. Install an additional Integrated Facility for Linux (IFL)

D. Determine what resource is the limiting factor in the configuration

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3

The System z sales specialist has brought the System z technical specialist in very late in the pre sale process. This caused several problems, and the specialist had to correct some misunderstandings about the technology and capabilities. To avoid these misunderstandings in future, which of the following would be the most appropriate way to handle this?

A. Document the problems and send a written summary to the sales specialist.

B. Explain the situationto the customer and document the problems in the SAR.

C. Ask the sales specialist to bring them in earlier so that they can better understand the account.

D. Discuss the situation and the related issues with the sales manager and ask them to discuss with the sales specialist.

Answer: C

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000-422 InfoSphere QualityStage  v8.5

QUESTION NO: 1

If rule changes are required to a QualityStage Standardization rule set, which two of the following are the correct steps to implement in your environment? (Choose two)

A. Changes are rarely required in development of an application
B. Rule sets can not be changed in the QualityStage environment
C. Copy the rule set, rename it then edit the newly created rule set
D. Edit the default rule set delivered with the product then save changes
E. Use the pattern override section to make changes

Answer: C,E

QUESTION NO: 2

Which of the following rule sets are NOT delivered with QualityStage?

A. Date processing

B. Country processing

C. Address processing

D. Credit card processing

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3

When creating a copy of an existing rule set what components are copied?

A. Pattern action, classification, dictionary
B. Pattern action, classification, dictionary, lookup tables
C. Pattern action, classification, dictionary, override tables
D. Pattern action, classification, dictionary, override tables, lookup tables

Answer: C

000-423 Information Analyzer v8.5

QUESTION NO: 1

You are trying to identify a multi-column primary key in a table of 50 million records. What steps can you take to minimize performance impact?

A. None, you must always assess full volume of data.

B. Use a data sample; apply regression analysis to identify statistically likely candidates; apply duplicate check.

C. Use a data sample; limit the test to specific columns at one time; incrementally increase the number of possible column combinations.

D. Use a data sample; apply functional dependency analysis to remove dependent columns; incrementally increase the number of possible column combinations.

 Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2

You submitted a column analysis job with the “Retain Scripts” set to no. The column analysis job finished with an “error encountered” final message. You have access to the DataStage Director client. Which option would allow you to find the source of the error?

A. Create a log view in Information Analyzer and rerun the job. Examine the log to determine the error.

B. Rerun the job with the “Retain Scripts” turned on. The error message will be returned to the Information Analyzer status window.

C. Submit the job from Information Analyzer. After it finishes log onto DataStage Director and examine the job log to determine the source of the error.

D. Submit the job from Information Analyzer and place it on hold. Log onto DataStage Director, release the job and examine the job log to determine the source of the error.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3

While reviewing the results of a data rule test you find a logic error. Which option will allow you to troubleshoot this error?

A. Set the debug option when submitting the test job, then review the log.

B. Open a command window on the client, submit the job and view the log.

C. Set Retain Scripts to on and use DataStage Director to review the job log.

D. Create a log view to capture the CAS log. Rerun the rule and review the log.

Answer: A

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000-198 IBM Security Access  Manager V7.0 Implementation

QUESTION NO: 1
Which utility provides backup, restore, and extract capabilities for Security Access Manager data?

A. pdinfo
B. pdbackup
C. pdservice
D. pd_backup

Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 2
What pdbackup command restores the contents of an Access Manger archived file on a Windows operating system to a specific folder?

A. pdbackup -a extract
B. pdabckup -a backup
C. pdbackup -a restore
D. pdbackup -a retrieve

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 3
When performing an upgrade, which utility is used to back up the information in Tivoli Directory Server?

A. ldapadd
B. bulkload
C. idsdb2ldif
D. idscreateldif

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 4
Which registry is NOT supported by ISAM 7?

A. Lotus?Domino?Lotus?Domino
B. IBM?Tivoli?Directory Server
C. Microsoft Active Directory 2008
D. Sun Java?System Directory Server 7

Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 5
Which statement is FALSE regarding local response redirection?

A. We need to use External authentication interface to implement local response redirection.
B. When local response redirection is enabled, change password must be handled by WebSEAL.
C. When using local response redirection, WebSEAL no longer has the responsibility of generating responses to client requests.
D. When local response redirection is enabled, the redirection is used for all local WebSEAL response types: login, error, informational, and password management.

Answer: A

000-241 IBM Sterling Order Management V9.2, Solution Design

QUESTION NO: 1
A retailer’s delivery rules do not allow shipping for an open box television (TV) that is more than 150 miles away. However, they do support moving this TV through a network of stores that are spread throughout the country, until it reaches a store that supports delivery to the customer. The retailer needs to configure such a multi-hop transfer of inventory through the supply chain and provide an accurate promise date to a customer who is over 1000 miles away from the store with the open box TV. In order to do so, Sterling Order Management considers all the following configuration settings EXCEPT for:

A. Receiving store calendar.
B. Receipt Processing Time.
C. Delivery resource pool capacity.
D. Transfer relationship across stores.

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 2
A customer purchased a DVD player from a store, and later realized that some of the required features were missing. The customer tries to return the DVD player for a refund, but the sales order cannot be located in the Sterling application. Which type of return should be created in the Sterling application?

A. Refund Order
B. Exchange Order
C. Blind Return Order
D. Speed Exchange Order

Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 3
A customer would like a purchase order (PO) to be “Created”, but it should only treat 80% of future supply as available. This should happen until the PO receives a status update that indicates its been “Approved”, at which point 90% of the future supply can be considered for promising. Future supply can be considered when scheduling orders but should not be considered when releasing the pick instructions to the fulfillment center. In order to model this requirement with MINIMAL custom logic, the solution design must:

A. 1. Create an extended status of PO “Created” which is “Approved”.2. Create a new supply type corresponding to the “Inbound approved” status.3. Map the PO status “Approved” to the supply type “Inbound approved” and status “Created” to supply type “Purchase order placed”.4. Set up the appropriate safety factor of 80% for supply type “Purchase order placed” and 90% for supply type “Inbound approved”.5. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to schedule transaction to future supplies.6. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to release transaction to use only onhand supplies.
B. 1. Create an extended status of PO “Created” which is “Approved”.2. Create a new supply type corresponding to the “Inbound approved” status.3. Map the PO status “Approved” to the supply type “Inbound approved” and status “Created” to supply type “Purchase order placed”.4. Set up the appropriate safety factor of 80% for demand type “Scheduled” and 90% for demand type “Released”.5. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to schedule transaction to future supplies.6. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to release transaction to use only onhand supplies.
C. 1. Create an extended status of PO “Created” which is “Approved”.2. Create a new supply type corresponding to the “Inbound approved” status.3. Map the PO status “Approved” to the supply type “Inbound approved” and status “Created” to supply type “Purchase order placed”.4. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to schedule transaction to future supplies.5. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to release transaction to use only onhand supplies.6. Implement the Supply corrections user exit to only show 80% or 90% of supply as applicable.
D. 1. Create an extended status of PO “Created” which is “Approved”.2. Create a new supply type corresponding to the “Inbound approved” status.3. Map the PO status “Approved” to the supply type “Inbound approved” and status “Created” to supply type “Purchase order placed”.4. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to schedule transaction to future supplies.5. Use Inventory considerations to map the demand type corresponding to release transaction to use only onhand supplies.6. Implement the Availability corrections user exit to only show 80% or 90% of supply as applicable.

Answer: A

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