JN0-102 question and answer

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JN0-102 question and answer

  • Code:JN0-102
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    Why is IPv6 packet processing more effective than IPv4 packet processing?
    A. fixed header size
    B. smaller header size
    C. fewer header fields
    D. variable header size
    Answer: A
    QUESTION NO: 2
    For the interface ge-1/2/3.4, what does “ge” represent?
    A. SONET/SDH
    B. Gigabit Ethernet
    C. Aggregated Ethernet
    D. GRE
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Which word starts a command to display the operational status of a Junos device?
    A. put
    B. set
    C. show
    D. get
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 4
    Which command prompt indicates that you are in operational mode?
    A. user@router&
    B. user@router#
    C. user@router%
    D. user@router>
    Answer: D
    QUESTION NO: 5
    What is the decimal equivalent of 00000100?
    A. 2
    B. 4
    C. 9
    D. 12
    Answer: B

JK0-017 exam study guide

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JK0-017 exam study guide

  • Code:JK0-017
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  • Exam Demo:
  • Q1
    Which of the following are process groups in the project life cycle? (Select Three).
    A. Accepting
    B. Mitigating
    C. Avoiding
    D. Initiating
    E. Closing
    F. Planning
    Answer: D,E,F
    Q2
    A project team is comfortable working as a group and has accepted all the project ground rules. They support each other to reach the project goals. Which of the following stages of team development is the project team demonstrating?
    A. Storming
    B. Performing
    C. Conforming
    D. Forming
    Answer: B
    Q3
    A project manager is informed that material expenditures will increase. Which of the following documents should be referenced to address this increase?
    A. Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
    B. Cost management plan
    C. Approved project charter
    D. Project scope document
    Answer: B
    Q4
    The project charter is an output of which of the following project phases?
    A. Initiation
    B. Planning
    C. Execution
    D. Closing
    Answer: A
    Q5
    All of the following are considered part of the risk management plan EXCEPT the risk:
    A. register.
    B. matrix.
    C. assessment.
    D. baseline.
    Answer: D

JK0-015 question and answer

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JK0-015 question and answer

  • Code:JK0-015
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    Which of the following logical access control methods would a security administrator need to modify in order to control network traffic passing through a router to a different network?
    A. Configuring VLAN 1
    B. ACL
    C. Logical tokens
    D. Role-based access control changes
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which of the following tools limits external access to the network?
    A. IDS
    B. VLAN
    C. Firewall
    D. DMZ
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Which of the following tools was created for the primary purpose of reporting the services that are open for connection on a networked workstation?
    A. Protocol analyzer
    B. Port scanner
    C. Password crackers
    D. Vulnerability scanner
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 4
    Which of the following is MOST likely to be an issue when turning on all auditing functions within a system?
    A. Flooding the network with all of the log information
    B. Lack of support for standardized log review tools
    C. Too much information to review
    D. Too many available log aggregation tools
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Upon opening the browser, a guest user is redirected to the company portal and asked to agree to the acceptable use policy. Which of the following is MOST likely causing this to appear?
    A. NAT
    B. NAC
    C. VLAN
    D. DMZ
    Answer: B

HP3-C36 test online

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HP3-C36 test online

  • Code:HP3-C36
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    What does it mean when a device supply reaches the <Supply> Very Low state?
    A. The user must replace the specified supply
    B. The HP Premium Protection warranty on that supply has ended
    C. The specified supply is at or below 20%.
    D. The device will not accept any new print jobs until the specified supply is replaced
    Answer: B
    Reference:http://h10025.www1.hp.com/ewfrf/wc/document?cc=us&lc=en&docname=c02184434
    QUESTION NO: 2
    When is it NOT possible to return a newly-installed fuser to HP as new or to install it in another device as unused’?
    A. immediately upon installation
    B. after 50 pages have printed
    C. after 100 pages have printed
    D. after 500 pages have printed
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 3
    What is one characteristic of the control panel on the HP LaserJet Enterprise 600 M601, M602, and M603 Series Printer?
    A. It is designated as a Customer Self-Repair (CSR) part
    B. It is not designated as a CSR part
    C. It contains a monochrome, graphical display
    D. It is a touchscreen graphical display
    Answer: C
    Reference:
    http://h20566.www2.hp.com/portal/site/hpsc/template.PAGE/public/kb/docDisplay?java
    x.portlet.begCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken&javax.portlet.endCacheTok=com.vignette.cachetoken&javax.portlet.prp_ba847bafb2a2d782fcbb0710b053ce01=wsrpnavigationalState%3DdocId%253Demr_na-c03020172-3%257CdocLocale%253D%257CcalledBy%253D&javax.portlet.tpst=ba847bafb2a2d782fcbb0710b053ce01&ac.admitted=1394131806019.876444892.199480143
    QUESTION NO: 4
    For which reason should a used inter-connect board (ICB) never be installed in another engine’?
    A. Each ICB contains device-specific data, which would corrupt critical values in another engine.
    B. The ICB is hard-keyed tothe device it is installed onand attempting to install it in another engine could damage the ICB
    C. The ICB installs an encrypted Key on the formatter Replacing theICB corrupts the formatter Keynrequiring a formatter replacement.
    D. There is a risk that the low voltage power supply would burn an ICB that is not factory
    calibrated to it.
    Answer: A
    QUESTION NO: 5
    What monitors the remaining toner level in a print cartridge?
    A. the DC controller via the high-voltage power supply
    B. the inter-connect board via the low-voltage power supply
    C. the formatter via the toner collection unit
    D. the hard disk via the toner collection unit
    Answer: C

HP2-Z30 exam online

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HP2-Z30 exam online

  • Code:HP2-Z30
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    What is the default username and password an administrator would use to log into a new HP MSM access point?
    A. username of “hp” and password of “hp”
    B. username of “msm” and password of “wireless”
    C. username of “admin” and password of “hp”
    D. username of “admin” and password of “admin”
    Answer: D
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which Intelligent Management Center (IMC) group role allows an administrator to manage
    networking devices, but cannot add new IMC administrative users?
    A. Operator
    B. Administrator
    C. Manager
    D. Maintainer
    Answer: D
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Which Layer 2 mechanism should be used to authenticate wireless or wired users before allowing them access to network resources?
    A. 802.1X
    B. MIMO
    C. 802.1Z
    D. WPA
    Answer: A
    QUESTION NO: 4
    Which HP switch supports nine switches in an IRF topology?
    A. 5120-SI
    B. 5820
    C. 7500
    D. 12500
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Which component of an HP Comware switch controls logging on to a syslog server?
    A. Log Parser
    B. Event Analyzer
    C. Information Center
    D. Event Log
    Answer: C

HP2-K38 exam study guide

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HP2-K38 exam study guide

  • Code:HP2-K38
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    Which customer scenarios can the HP Storage Data Migration Service support? (Select two.)
    A. The customer wants to enable mirroring capabilities.
    B. The customer wants to consolidate their environment,
    C. The customer wants to implement a tiered storage strategy.
    D. The customer wants to redistribute data within the array.
    E. The customer wants to move magazines within the array.
    Answer: B,C
    QUESTION NO: 2
    A customer has expressed objections to moving to a new HP 3PAR StoreServ architecture because of the migration complexities involved.
    Which statement should you make to position Peer Motion as a solution for this customer?
    A. It can complete controller node firmware updates with zero downtime.
    B. It is a customer-implementable, non-disruptive data migration tool,
    C. It performs a bit-by-bit copy for data archives by using data deduplication.
    D. It enables customers to migrate live virtual machines with no downtime.
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 3
    A customer asks you to explain what makes HP 3PAR StoreServ Thin Provisioning unique.
    Which two statements should you include in your response? (Select two.)
    A. The decision to go thin can be made during original disk layout or later without compromising the time invested.
    B. The HP thin technology speeds up and simplifies data migration to other non-HP storage appliances.
    C. Disk space savings and efficient use of capacity yields a higher ROI for the life of the array.
    D. Replicated data eliminates the need to write any zeros that were removed from the primary data source.
    E. Administrators are not forced to configure the drives specifically to avoid drawDacks in
    performance.
    Answer: C,D
    QUESTION NO: 4
    A customer asks for an explanation of how HP 3PAR StoreServ Thin Reclamation technology can help them manage their growing storage space consumption.
    Which two features should you describe? (Select two.)
    A. Management follows the same flow and process as thick reclamation, and it is possible to toggle back and forth with one click.
    B. When zeros are removed, they are not included with snapshots or copies.
    C. When a snapshot, full copy, or LUN is deleted, the space is immediately available without requiring a physical capacity format.
    D. Reserving unused capacity is not necessary because it is returned to a common pool.
    Answer: C,D
    QUESTION NO: 5
    A customer tells you that they are considering EMC instead of HP because HP StoreOnce does not support global deduplication.
    What should you tell this customer to overcome this objection?
    A. Unlike EMC global deduplication, HP federated deduplication supports RAID protection through a wide choice of RAID levels.
    B. HP federated deduplication is superior to EMC global deduplication because it offers seamless data movement across the enterprise.
    C. EMC global deduplication sacrifices high availability, and risks losing access to the entire global deduplicated data pool.
    D. The EMC hash matching process works on a smaller subset of data, sacrificing efficiency.
    Answer: A

HP2-H31practice test

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HP2-H31practice test

  • Code:HP2-H31
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    Who are the leading competitors for HP Z620 workstations?
    A. Samick, Asus, and Dell
    B. IBM, Lexmark, and NVDIA
    C. Samsung, Gold Star, and Hyundai
    D. Dell,Lenovo,and Apple
    Answer: D
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which market segment is targeted for HP Z230 workstations?
    A. Oil and gas
    B. Home office
    C. Small retail
    D. Education
    Answer: A
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Which option available on HP Z420 workstations enables whisper quiet acoustics even under heavy loads?
    A. Mini tower design
    B. Up to 64 GB ECC memory
    C. Latest technology from NVIDIA
    D. Liquid cooling subsystem
    Answer: D
    Reference:
    http://www.asetek.com/press-room/news/2009/asetek-adds-liquid-cooling-to-hp-zworkstations.aspx
    QUESTION NO: 4
    Which feature that applies to HP Z1 workstations appeals to customers in the healthcare market segment?
    A. 92 percent efficient 240 Watt power supply
    B. Easyto clean 27-inch IPS professional display
    C. 27-inch HP DreamColor display
    D. Large 17-inch display real estate
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Which feature applies to the liquid cooling option available in some HP workstations?
    A. Reduces the toxicity of the cooling process
    B. Replaces the air passing over the heat sink with liquid
    C. Muffles the fan noise by surrounding the fan shroud with liquid
    D. Replaces the heat sink with a cold plate
    Answer: C
    Reference:
    http://www.asetek.com/press-room/news/2011/pc-liquid-cooling-comes-of-age-withasetek%E2%80%99s-sealed-systems.aspx

EX0-003 exam training

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EX0-003 exam training

  • Code:EX0-003
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    Which activity includes addressing the disadvantages of ‘doing nothing’ to those stakeholders that object to the programme?
    A. Analyse stakeholders
    B. Sum ma rise risks
    C. Carry out a health check
    D. Conduct a visioning workshop
    Answer: D
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which of the following statements about the core elements of successful communications is true?
    1. Stakeholder analysis is required
    2. Audit trail is established
    A. Only 1 is true
    B. Only 2 is true
    C. Both land 2are true
    D. Neither 1 or 2 is true
    Answer: A
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Which is an assurance management technique?
    A. Benefits management
    B. Risk management
    C. Business analysis
    D. Gated review
    Answer: D
    QUESTION NO: 4
    Which is the MOST likely source of uncertainties whilst transitioning to new ways of working?
    A. Project development
    B. Programme level
    C. Operational activities
    D. Strategic development
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 5
    Which is a governance area of focus for the Programme Manager in consultation with other stakeholders?
    A. Providing support for governance assurance reviews
    B. Initiating assurance reviews of programme viability
    C. Providing business intelligence for Stakeholder Profiles
    D. Designing the programm’s governance arrangements
    Answer: D

EX0-002 question and answer

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EX0-002 question and answer

  • Code:EX0-002
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    When considering risks, which describes an opportunity in a project?
    A. An uncertain event that could have a negative impact on objectives
    B. An uncertain event that could have a favourable impact on objectives
    C. An event that has occurred resulting in a negative impact on objectives
    D. An event that has occurred resulting in a favourable impact on objectives
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which of the following statements about lines of authority and reporting are true?
    1, The Project Manager has day-to-day control for a management stage within the limits laid,
    2. If a Team Manager forecasts a deviation beyond Work Package tolerances, this should be referred to the Project Manager down by the Project Board.
    A. Only 1 is true
    B. Only 2 is true
    C. Both 1 and 2 are true
    D. Neither 1 or 2 are true
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Which may be funded from a risk budget?
    A. Corrections due to off-specifications
    B. Impact analysis of requests for change
    C. Implementation of a fallback plan
    D. Preparation of the Risk Management Strategy
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 4
    What is the first task of product-based planning?
    A. Produce the Initiation Stage Plan
    B. Write the Project Product Description
    C. Identify dependencies
    D. Create the product breakdown structure
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 5
    How many tasks does the product-based planning technique describe?
    A. One
    B. Two
    C. Three
    D. Four
    Answer: D

700-301 exam online

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700-301 exam online

  • Code:700-301
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  • Exam Demo:
  • QUESTION NO: 1
    Which router, in virtual form factor, is intended for deployment in cloud data centers?
    A. Cisco Nexus 1000V
    B. Cisco Virtual Wide Area Application Services
    C. Cisco ASA 1000V Cloud Firewall
    D. Cisco CSR 1000V
    Answer: D
    QUESTION NO: 2
    Which feature helps to simplify and scale branch IT operations?
    A. Selection of optimal path by application type and priority
    B. WAN optimization for every size site
    C. Quality of service to BYOD applications
    D. Visibility into encrypted wireless traffic
    Answer: B
    QUESTION NO: 3
    Which benefit of Cisco Unified Access corresponds with “fast stateful recovery”?
    A. Fair-share bandwidth management
    B. Traffic optimization
    C. Maximum resiliency
    D. Unified policy enforcement point
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 4
    When a customer expresses concerns about the lack of visibility into the network, which feature should you highlight when you position the Cisco Medianet solution?
    A. Compatibility with third-party solutions
    B. Faster troubleshooting
    C. Media monitoring features on the routers
    D. Autoconfiguration features within the switch access layer
    Answer: C
    QUESTION NO: 5
    A customer is looking for small deployments, especially in high-usage areas of their network.
    While all of these statements hold true for Cisco Medianet, what is a key point to highlight so that your customer is encouraged to buy the Cisco solution?
    A. Cisco Medianet can be deployed in phases that allow customers to realize benefits quickly.
    B. Cisco Medianet provides greater visibility and granularity.
    C. Cisco Medianet can co-exist with legacy network elements.
    D. Cisco Medianet is designed to work with third-party endpoints.
    Answer: A