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QUESTION NO: 1
A customer wants to use the same wage type for a special payment such as hazardous pay and have the rate vary by personnel area.
What do you have to configure?

A. Modif W and the table V_T539J (Base wage type valuation)
B. Modif 4 and the table V_T510S (Time wage type selection)
C. Modif 2 and the table V_T510J (Constant valuations)
D. Modif A and the table V_T554C (Absence valuation)

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
A customer continues to pay some employees for a period of time after they are terminated. These employees should also be processed in retro calculation runs.
What do you recommend?

A. Terminate the employee with the future date up to which you want to continue regular
processing and use the payroll driver to force any retro runs.
B. Terminate the employee and enter the date up to which you want to continue processing payroll in the Accounted to field on IT0003.
C. Terminate the employee and enter the date up to which you want to continue processing payroll in the Run Payroll up to field on IT0003.
D. Terminate the employee with the future date up to which you want to continue payroll
processing so they are included in regular and retro runs.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
Your customer wants to automate off-cycle payroll tasks such as printing forms, execution of posting run, and printing checks.
Which tool is best suited for this?

A. Payroll control record
B. Off-Cycle Workbench
C. HR Process Workbench
D. Interface Toolbox

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
A customer asks you to configure an average calculation rule for hourly workers. The rule should determine an average daily overtime rate derived from all overtime earned during the previous three months. Any retroactive changes in pay should be included.
What do you have to include in the configuration of the rule? (Choose three.)

A. Final processing rule
B. Cumulation rule
C. Time wage type selection rule
D. Adjustment rule
E. Processing class 01 rule

Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 5
A customer is concerned that WPBP splits on the IT input table may lead to overpayments.
What explanations do you provide to address their concerns? (Choose two.)

A. WPBP splits occur when an employee enters or leaves the company during a pay period. They are used to prorate their pay accordingly.
B. WPBP splits occur when an employee’s organizational assignment changes. They are used to allocate personnel costs to the correct cost center.
C. WPBP splits occur when an employee’s address changes during a pay period. They are used to allocate benefit deductions to the correct provider.
D. WPBP splits occur when an employee’s bank information changes during a pay period. They are used to allocate payments to the correct account.

Answer: A,B

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following lists can be printed to help you edit a dunning proposal? (Choose two)

A. Condensed master data
B. Blocked accounts
C. Blocked line items
D. Sales statistics

Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 2
What does the posting key control? (Choose three)

A. Account type
B. Document type
C. Field status
D. Debit/credit indicator
E. Number range

Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 3
Your customer runs an SAP ERP system with New General Ledger Accounting activated.
What do you need to do for Profit Center updates to be part of the general ledger?

A. Activate transfer prices in Profit Center Accounting.
B. Set up the same group currency for all company codes and profit centers.
C. Deactivate document splitting for profit centers.
D. Assign the Profit Center Update scenario to the ledger.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
If a vendor is also a customer, it is possible to clear both roles against each other.
Which settings are necessary to implement this? (Choose two)

A. The “Clearing with Vendor” field must be selected in the customer account, and the
corresponding field must be selected in the vendor account.
B. The vendor and the customer must be assigned to the same group account.
C. The vendor number must be entered in the customer account or the customer number must be entered in the vendor account.
D. The payment program must be set up to allow debit checks for vendors and credit checks for customers.

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 5
In a payment run, the data entered for a payment method in the document may differ from the master data.
How is this resolved by the system?

A. Document data overrides master data.
B. The payment run stops and the system issues an error message.
C. The payment run temporarily stops, and the system prompts you to correct the data. After you have corrected the data, the payment run continues.
D. Master data overrides document data.

Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which are the correct series of steps in the payment program?
A. CD Maintain parameters, Proposal run, Printing Payment Media, Execute a payment run CD.
B. Proposal run, Maintain parameters, Printing Payment Media, Execute a payment run CD.
C. Proposal run, Execute a payment run, Printing Payment Media, Maintain parameters CD.
D. Maintain parameters, Printing Payment Media, Proposal run, Execute a payment run CD.
E. Maintain parameters, Proposal run, Execute a payment run, Printing Payment Media.

Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 2

Instead of the classic system monitoring of individual system components; with Solution Monitoring, entire business processes can be monitored as a whole across multiple components.
Identify the three components that define the concept of Solution Monitoring:
A. User Level management
B. Business Process Monitoring
C. System Monitoring
D. Service Level Management
E. Component Solution Monitoring

Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION NO: 3
What is the purpose of account determination in the accrual engine? (There are 2 correct answers to this question.)
A. To determine the CO object
B. To determine the correct posting period.
C. To determine the document type
D. To determine debit and credit accounts.

Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 4
Identify the steps in the ASAP (Accelerated SAP) Methodology.
A. Roll out
B. Go Live & Support
C. Final Preparation
D. Realization
E. Project Preparation
F. Business Blueprint

Answer: B,C,D,E,F

QUESTION NO: 5
Every company code may define its own document number ranges
A. Fales
B. True

Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
During an assessment of a B-Series SAN switch, a SAN architect notices that the switch is partitioned into a set of logical switches. What is the name of this feature?

A. Inter VSAN routing
B. Transparent Routing
C. Virtual Fabric
D. VSAN

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
What is the primary factor to be considered when sizing the replication link between HP D2D backup systems?

A. blackout window length
B. WAN link efficiency
C. minimum reverse replication bandwidth
D. change rate of application data

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
In addition to considering application data change rate, what must you do to accurately calculate the total change rate for replicated data? (Select two.)

A. Identify correct buffer credits.
B. Measure the number of write IOPS.
C. Determine the partition offset.
D. Estimate the average block size.
E. Verify RAID stripe step size.

Answer: B,D

QUESTION NO: 4
Which replication protocols can be used on an HP Enterprise Virtual Array system using
Continuous Access EVA and current firmware? (Select two.)

A. HP FCIP
B. HP SAS-FCP
C. HP FC
D. HP SCSI-FCP
E. HP SAS

Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO:5
When using Wavelength Division Multiplexing (WDM) devices to extend the distance between two SANs, what should be considered to maintain line speed performance?

A. dedicated zones
B. buffer-to-buffer credits
C. switch to multiplexer cable length
D. number of switch hops

Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Your customer wants to replace their current Tier1 storage environment (120TB usable capacity) that supports current versions of VMware/Windows, RedHat Linux, HP-UX and Solaris. While the current storage environment has been reliable, it struggles to keep pace with the rapid changes in the company’s business environment as changes and upgrades often take many weeks to plan before they can be deployed. Even day-to-day tasks such as LUN provisioning require significant management effort. The new storage solution must not compromise reliability, but should address the requirements for reduced management effort and deployment flexibility. Improvement in
capacity utilization would also be viewed very positively. Which HP storage solution would best meetthe customer’s business requirements?

A. 3PAR T400 4 nodes, Dynamic Optimization, Thin Provisioning, Thin Conversion, and Thin Persistence
B. 3PAR T400 2 nodes, Dynamic Optimization, Thin Provisioning, Thin Conversion, and Thin Persistence
C. 3PAR F400 with 4 nodes, Dynamic Optimization, Thin Provisioning, Thin Persistence, and Adaptive Optimization
D. 3PAR F400 with 2 nodes, Dynamic Optimization, Thin Provisioning, Thin Persistence, and Adaptive Optimization

Answer: A
QUESTION 2
Click the Exhibit button.
Which method can you use to create quorum in the event of a site failure?

Exhibit:

A. Use Virtual Manager to re-establish quorum.
B. Configure Failover Manager for manual recovery.
C. Designate a dedicated majority node.
D. Execute the Automated Recovery Manager.

Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Your customer has a requirement for a mainframe solution to serve their billing system.
The storage solution also needs to be able to support other open systems in their enterprise. Availability and performance consistency are also required. Which solution meets these requirements?

A. HP 3PAR Storage System
B. HP Storage Enterprise Virtual Array 6000
C. HP Storage P9000 Disk Array
D. HP Lefthand P4000 SAN Solution

Answer: C

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QUESTION: 1
What is a benefit of connecting servers to the SAN one HBA at a time?

A. It guarantees the connections are properly documented.
B. It allows the switch time to balance the load.
C. It prevents having to reboot the server.
D. It allows verification that the HBA properly logs into the fabric.

Answer: D

QUESTION: 2
A customer wants to implement a new c-Class blade environment and connect it as an edge device in an existing fabric and Ethernet network. Which cost-effective converged network interconnect device should you recommend to help reduce the resultant network sprawl by up to 95%?

A. HP StorageWorks 4Gb SAN Switch for HP c-Class BladeSystem (Brocade 4024)
B. HP StorageWorks 400 Multiprotocol Router
C. HP Virtual Connect FlexFabric 10Gb/24-port Modules
D. HP Storage Works 4/32 SAN Switch with Access Gateway enabled

Answer: C

QUESTION: 3
What is a feature of a B-series switch license upgrade?

A. inter-switch link (ISL) trunking
B. zero E-port capability
C. advanced WebTools
D. zoning

Answer: A

QUESTION: 4
When powering down the SAN, what is an exception that would change the power down
sequence?

A. The physical layout of the SAN devices is modified.
B. A non-standard sequence is used for power on.
C. A server is needed to run device management software.
D. Data in the cache is previously flushed.

Answer: C

QUESTION: 5
Which port type is used by building an LSAN on supported B-series 8Gb SAN Switches to
provide the routed paths between routed fabrics?

A. VEX_Port
B. E_Port
C. EX_Port
D. TE_Port

Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
The HP P2000 G3 FC Storage Array supports both the MSA70 and D2700 disk enclosures.
When connecting these enclosures to the P2000 G3 FC controller, where can the MSA70 enclosure be cabled without limiting performance?

A. any location
B. before all D2700 enclosures
C. after all D2700 enclosures
D. after the first D2700 enclosure

Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A consultant meets with a customer to define a Disaster Recovery plan based on HP VLS technology.
What are the most important parameters the consultant must obtain from the customer? (Select two.)

A. Recovery Point Objective
B. Restore Point Objective
C. Recovery Time Objective
D. Retention Point Objective
E. Retention Time Objective

Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Which D2D network configuration mode will improve the availability of overall network bandwidth?

A. Single Port Configuration
B. Dual Port Configuration
C. High Availability (Port Failover) Configuration
D. High Availability (Link Aggregation) Configuration

Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What is the recommended minimum block size that should be configured when backing up to D2D systems?

A. 64KB
B. 128KB
C. 256KB
D. 1MB

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which HP P4000 management tool should you use to gather storage system status information?

A. Centralized Management Console (CMC)
B. HP Integrated Lights Out (ILO)
C. Web Based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
D. System Management Homepage (SMH)

Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
What is a key advantage of an HP 3PAR solution?

A. The solution is designed primarily as a cloud offering.
B. It uses finely granular distribution across an entire disk group.
C. Data is distributed across entire RAID sets.
D. Storage can be provisioned in as few as two commands.

Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which user privileges are needed to create tasks to be initiated by the System Scheduler using the CLI? (Select two.)

A. Super
B. Browse
C. Edit
D. Service
E. Admin

Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
You are in a meeting with a customer and they have asked if the 3PAR storage array is a good fit for them. Which customer needs are best met by the 3PAR architecture?

A. the customer that has random I/O workload and wants to achieve greater VM density
B. the customer whose primary requirement is sequential performance
C. the customer with a large data warehouse application
D. the customer with long term image archiving requirements

Answer: C

QUESTION 4
When deploying a F400 with a single magazine in the chassis, what is the minimum upgrade building block allowed in an F-Class?

A. There must be the same types of drives as in the initial system.
B. A minimum of two ports for backend disk connectivity is required.
C. There must be the same number of drives as the initial system.
D. An upgrade must be performed with a minimum of eight drives.

Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which statement is true about Virtual Lock on an HP 3PAR array?

A. Virtual Lock functionality is included in the base product.
B. Virtual Lock sets a read-only flag to a volume to prevent overwriting the volume. However, it can be deleted.
C. Virtual Lock prevents a volume from being deleted intentionally or unintentionally before the retention period elapses.
D. Virtual Lock can be used to specify the retention period for each volume, but not a copy of a volume.

Answer: C