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QUESTION NO: 1
Which fabric security method provides frame-level access control in hardware and verifies the SID-DID combination of each frame?

A. certificate authorization
B. access control list
C. discovery authentication
D. access authorization

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2
In being able to address a customer’s business needs, a Converged Infrastructure requires more than just some products connected loosely or in partnership with other companies. HP is uniquely positioned to deliver on a full version of the Converged Infrastructure. What does Converged Infrastructure provide that gives HP a significant advantage in the marketplace? (Select two.)

A. power and cooling technologies
B. SAN bridges and routers
C. data center design methodology
D. flexible servers and storage

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which HP storage array function can be used to shorten the backup windows and free up
resources required for backup?

A. server-less backup
B. snapclones
C. snapshots
D. automated image copy

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
A presales consultant’s primary goal is to work with customers to find and describe storage solutions that provide business value. What are the contributors to business value in a storage context? (Select two.)

A. business flexibility
B. competitive advantages
C. service levels
D. IT staff reductions

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 5
What does the SalesBuilder for Windows tool provide?

A. a way to better understand how well a business is prepared for managing risk
B. the ability to navigate through the HP StorageWorks product portfolio, based on selected criteria
C. the ability to generate topology diagrams, required components, and additional
recommendations for future growth
D. the ability to quickly configure new systems, upgrades, and add-ons, and to prepare budgetary quotes

Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 1
Encryption of data stored on internal drives is performed by which P9500 subsystem?

A. CHA
B. ESW
C. DKA
D. MPB

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
For every HP StorageWorks P9000 Business Copy primary volume, how many secondary
volumes can be paired?

A. 3
B. 6
C. 9
D. 12

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
What is included in the HP StorageWorks P9000 Array Manager software? (Select three.)

A. Thin Provisioning
B. RAID Manager
C. Performance Monitor
D. DKA Encryption
E. Replication Manager
F. Data Shredder

Answer: B,C,F

QUESTION NO: 4
A customer is using Command View Advanced Edition and is interested in the architecture of this solution. Which protocol is used by the Device Management Server to communicate with the array?

A. UDP
B. TCP/IP
C. FC
D. SMI-S

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5
The P9500 Remote Web Console (RWC) allows users to submit multiple changes to be applied to an array without waiting for the first request operation to complete. User A submits a change request and the task starts executing. User A is interrupted by a phone call, but remains on the same screen. User B starts a RWC session and attempts to submit a change request. User A finishes the phone call and then submits a second change request before his first one completes.
When is User A’s second request executed?

A. immediately after User A’s first request is finished
B. before User B’s request, if priority level is set higher
C. immediately after User B’s request is finished
D. after User B’s request, if priority level is set lower

Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which device is the bottleneck in an EBS environment with optimum performance?
A. switch
B. server
C. primary storage
D. tape drive
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2
You are implementing a D2D4100 array with deduplication. What can you do to increase the
backup performance?
A. Set the device blocksize as low as possible.
B. Set the segment size to 2GB.
C. Set the host concurrency parameter in the backup application to its maximum.
D. Set the device concurrency parameter in the backup application to 1.
Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which component in a Symantec NetBackup solution is responsible for scheduling and tracking
client backups?
A. Media Server
B. Cell Server
C. Master Server
D. Storage Manager
Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
What must you do with Emulex HBAs connected to fabric switches when implementing an EBS
solution? (Select two.)
A. Install them in the last PCI slots of each server.
B. Ensure that all entries in the registry for the HBAs are set to 0.
C. Verify that the topology adapter parameter is set to 1.
D. Disable any unused ports.
E. Verify that the link speed is the same for the HBA and the connected SAN switch port.
Answer: C,E

QUESTION NO: 5
Which best practice should be followed when configuring a Virtual Library System 9000 for backup in an EBS environment?
A. Enable software and hardware compression to increase performance.
B. Use small cartridges to raise thededuplication ratio.
C. Use Echo Copy to mirror backups within the VLS.
D. Use ten characters when creating barcode labels to support all backup ISVs.
Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
At which level in HP P4000 SAN Solutions is RAID configured?

A. volume
B. cluster
C. management group
D. storage node

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2
When planning an installation of a new SAS Starter solution, how many network cables are recommended to configure the P4000 G2 solution correctly?

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
You are planning to integrate a P4800 BladeSystem SAN in a customer’s environment. What is the maximum number of uplink ports that can be connected to the network?

A. two 1GbE and four 10GbE ports
B. five 1GbE ports
C. eight 10GbE ports
D. ten 1GbE ports

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
During a presentation of a SAN/IQ solution, the customer focuses on the application-managed snapshot functionality and integration in their Data Protector solution using Zero-Downtime-Backup. The customer is using a Microsoft environment and needs a solution to shorten their Recovery Point Objective for their SQL database servers. Which component acts as a requestor in this environment?

A. MS SQL
B. VSS Provider
C. Data Protector
D. P4000 SAN

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 5
A customer has two data centers and needs 3.2TB of space in his P4300 environment. Data should be mirrored across both data centers. How many nodes are needed to fulfill this requirement?

A. 2 nodes
B. 3 nodes
C. 4 nodes
D. 6 nodes

Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which feature is unique to the EVA8400 / 11GB cache (per controller) model when compared to other EVA array models?

A. use of a third cache battery
B. 400TB addressable storage space
C. up to 5GB policy memory
D. maximum of 27 device shelves

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
Which EVA virtualization features help reduce customer Total Cost of Ownership? (Select two.)

A. load customization
B. LUN definition ruleset
C. pre-set VRAID security
D. reduced stranded capacity
E. significantly increased utilization

Answer: D,E

QUESTION NO: 3
What is the source of the identifying data that is inserted into the HP CommandView EVA SNMP MIB when it is generated?

A. SMI-S agent on management host
B. hardware ASIC in the first host port that sends the event
C. default parse file
D. controller software-specific parse file

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
A disk group is set to double protection level and contains only Vraid1 virtual disks. What happens when there is simultaneous loss of two physical disks from different mirrored pairs within the same Redundant Storage Set?

A. The Vraid1 fails and there is data loss.
B. Vraid1 data migrate to Vraid5.
C. The Vraid1 virtual disk stays in degraded mode and data is preserved.
D. The Vraid1 data from the failed disks is reconstructed.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5
What happens when you set the failure protection level for a disk group with same-sized disks on an EVA to single?

A. Two disks are reserved as spare space.
B. A one-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.
C. One disk is reserved as spare space.
D. A two-disk equivalent is reserved as spare space.

Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 1
The scale basis determines how the system interprets the value or quantity scale for a condition.
These scales can be dependent on a_____ or a______.
A. quantity, currency amount
B. currency amount, quantity

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
What does a controlling area represent?
A. Company codes are assigned to controlling areas when organizational structures are defined.
B. The controlling area is an organization unit delimiting the independent cost accounting operations of the organization, such as cost center accounting .profit center accounting, and order accounting.

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 3
Costing-based CO-PA stores its transaction data in the transaction data tables for Overhead Cost Management
A. True
B. False

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4
How are production variances calculated?
A. None
B. The difference between the actual costs of goods manufactured and standard costs

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5
A_____ consists of a number of different steps, which derive different characteristic values
A. derivation strategy

Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
You define a financial statement version in two steps: (Choose Two)

A. Enter in the directory of financial statement versions
B. Define hierarchy levels and assign accounts
C. None of the above

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following statements about financial reporting are correct?

A. When displaying a financial statement, the system can automatically calculate the profit and loss statement result.
B. You can obtain a summarized financial statement for any hierarchy level defined in the financial statement version
C. A financial statement version cannot include more than one company code, unless you are using FI-LC
D. A financial statement version displays either a balance sheet or a profit and lost statement, not both.
E. The system can translate a financial statement into any currency for reporting purposes.

Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose Three)

A. A house bank can be assigned to a business area within the payment program configuration
B. A House bank account can be defined in more than one currency
C. The payments program can use a different House bank for each different payment method
D. When creating a House bank, you do not need to specify the country.
E. House bank master data must be created in advance, before assigning the House bank to a payment method in the payment program configuration

Answer: A,C,E

QUESTION NO: 4
An account group (multi) (Choose Three)

A. Is defined for every company code.
B. Defines the number range for a mater record.
C. Uses a field status group to control the field layout for the maintenance of mater records
D. Determines one-time accounts for accounts payable and accounts receivable.

Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION NO: 5
Which of following statements are correct?

A. The customer master data comparison program compares which master records are already created in financial accounting but not yet created in sales and distribution.
B. The customer master data compares the customers in the legacy system with the customers in the R/3 System.
C. The customer master data comparison program compares which master records are already created in purchasing but not yet in sales and distribution.
D. The customer mater data comparison program checks whether the customer master record contains a telephone number.

Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which are the correct series of steps in the payment program?
A. CD Maintain parameters, Proposal run, Printing Payment Media, Execute a payment run CD.
B. Proposal run, Maintain parameters, Printing Payment Media, Execute a payment run CD.
C. Proposal run, Execute a payment run, Printing Payment Media, Maintain parameters CD.
D. Maintain parameters, Printing Payment Media, Proposal run, Execute a payment run CD.
E. Maintain parameters, Proposal run, Execute a payment run, Printing Payment Media.

Answer: E

QUESTION NO: 2

Instead of the classic system monitoring of individual system components; with Solution Monitoring, entire business processes can be monitored as a whole across multiple components.
Identify the three components that define the concept of Solution Monitoring:
A. User Level management
B. Business Process Monitoring
C. System Monitoring
D. Service Level Management
E. Component Solution Monitoring

Answer: B,C,D

QUESTION NO: 3
What is the purpose of account determination in the accrual engine? (There are 2 correct answers to this question.)
A. To determine the CO object
B. To determine the correct posting period.
C. To determine the document type
D. To determine debit and credit accounts.

Answer: C,D

QUESTION NO: 4
Identify the steps in the ASAP (Accelerated SAP) Methodology.
A. Roll out
B. Go Live & Support
C. Final Preparation
D. Realization
E. Project Preparation
F. Business Blueprint

Answer: B,C,D,E,F

QUESTION NO: 5
Every company code may define its own document number ranges
A. Fales
B. True

Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
The PI Mail adapter is used to send and receive emails. Which protocols are supported? Note:
There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. SMTP
B. HTTP
C. IMAP4
D. POP3

Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION NO: 2
You are implementing an IDoc-based scenario using SAP Netweaver PI and more specifically the sender IDoc adapter. Which of these steps are mandatory for the sender IDoc adapter to function properly?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. IDoc metadata must be imported into the Enterprise Services Repository.
B. The Logical System name (ALE name) for the Business System must be defined in the SLD.
C. A sender communication channel must be defined in the Integration Builder.
D. An RFC destination must be defined on the sender system, pointing to the Integration Server client.

Answer: A,B,D

QUESTION NO: 3
Assume that your customer has a scenario in which a database table needs to be queried (i.e. To perform a SELECT statement and obtain the result set). What are the viable options for implementing this with the PI JDBC adapter?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. Use the sender JDBC adapter to query the database asynchronously.
B. Use the sender JDBC adapter to query the database synchronously.
C. Use the receiver JDBC adapter to query the database synchronously.
D. Use the receiver JDBC adapter to query the database asynchronously.

Answer: A,C

QUESTION NO: 4
Which statements are correct when using the Receiver File adapter to process XML messages?
Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. The messages are processed based on a poll cycle.
B. The adapter can convert the XML payload into a flat file.
C. The adapter can FTP the file to a remote directory.
D. The quality of service can be ‘best effort’ (BE) only.

Answer: B,C

QUESTION NO: 5
You have implemented a scenario where IDocs are posted to an ERP system using the receiver IDoc adapter.
Which statements correctly describe the receiver IDoc adapter of SAP NetWeaver PI?
Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. IDoc packages are not supported, unless all IDocs are collected by BPM.
B. Specific fields in the IDoc control record can be overwritten using the ‘header mapping’
functionality in the Receiver Agreement.
C. Quality of service EOIO (exactly once in order) is supported, provided that the target system is a SAP Web AS 6.40 or above.
D. If the target system is SAP Web AS 6.20 or under, then the quality of service BE (best effort) and EO (exactly once) can be used.
E. A receiver communication channel must be defined in the Integration Builder.

Answer: B,C,E

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following statements regarding BEx Query Designer are correct? (Choose three)

A. Before defining a formula, you must ensure you have already created any restricted key figures that will be referenced in the formula.
B. You can only drag and drop multiple characteristics into the query definition if they come from the same dimension.
C. You can save a query that contains errors.
D. If a query contains errors, the system provides information to help you correct them, including menu options that may be suitable.
E. You can maintain many of the properties of multiple characteristics or key figures
Simultaneously.

Answer: C,D,E

QUESTION NO: 2
One of your customers needs to know the BEx Broadcaster options for sending static snap-shots of data. What would you tell them? (Choose three)

A. For workbooks, send as E-Mail as a Zip File.
B. For a web template, send as ‘Independent HTML File’.
C. For a web template, send as ‘HTML with Separate MIME Files’ as a Zip File.
D. For a web template, send as an ‘Online Link’.

Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION NO: 3
Where can variables be created? (Choose two)

A. In the query definition where they are needed.
B. In the BEx Web Application Designer, in the “Data Provider” field.
C. While using a web browser to view query results.
D. When defining exceptions and conditions.

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 4
A BEx Analyzer workbook can be based on which of the following? (Choose three)

A. A Query
B. A Query view created with the BEx Analyzer
C. An InfoProvider
D. A BEx Report created with the Report Designer

Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION NO: 5
If two queries are inserted into the same worksheet in a workbook, which of the following is a potential conflict?

A. The results for one query could affect the results for the other query.
B. The first query on the worksheet is the only query accessible by the user.
C. If the user drills down in the first query, the query result could possibly extend into the area occupied by the second query.
D. The security settings of the first query would override the security settings of the second query.

Answer: C