Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter HP HP2-K31 cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter HP HP2-K31 cert24
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QUESTION NO: 1
Which HP intellectual property innovations does StoreOnce deduplication software leverage? (Select two.)

A. fine-grained, variable chunking
B. data sampling
C. policy enforcing
D. sparse indexing
E. locality optimizing

Answer: A,D

QUESTION NO: 2
Which statement is true about HP Ultrium Tape Blades?

A. They can be used with an HP SB40c Storage Blade and connected to the same server blade.
B. They are developed exclusively for HP BladeSystem c-Class enclosures.
C. They use TapeAssure for hardware data encryption.
D. They represent five generations of LTO tape blade technology

Answer: B

Reference: http://h18006.www1.hp.com/products/storageworks/sb_tapeblades/index.html
(Overview, first paragraph)

QUESTION NO: 3
What is an advantage of SAS drives over SATA drives?

A. greater disk capacity
B. higher speed data transfers
C. lower cost per GB
D. hot-swap capability

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4
In which type of RAID is each disk paired with another specific disk?

A. RAID0
B. RAID1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6

Answer: B

Reference: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Standard_RAID_levels (RAID 1)

QUESTION NO: 5
Which feature, included in HP StoreOnce Backup, eliminates redundant data during backups by saving a single copy of identical data and replacing any further instances with pointers back to that copy?

A. deduplication
B. dynamic allocation
C. dynamic reallocation
D. low-bandwidth replication

Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
An LDAP client can specify a search base when searching a directory. A search base performs what function?

A. It tells the LDAP service what view to search.
B. It limits the scope of a search by specifying a point in the directory tree at which to begin.
C. It provides the LDAP service with a username and password for searching a directory securely.
D. It limits the LDAP search to specific local address books that are encrypted using the current user ID file.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2
While creating Internet Site documents, you do not select a specific server from your
environment to host the Web site. What is the result of this action?

A. All servers in the domain may host this site.
B. The Internet Site will not be loaded on any server.
C. All servers with no default Internet Site specified will serve this site.
D. Any server with the same organizational certifier may serve the Web site.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
When the LDAP service cannot find information for which an LDAP client is searching,
it can return a referral to the client. What Domino service does it utilize to provide this
referral?

A. MAPS
B. Referrer
C. Replicator
D. Directory Assistance

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
You have created substitution rules on your Domino Web server. However, you failed to
include at least one wildcard anywhere in the rule. What is the result of this action?

A. Domino will send the user to the default home page for the Web server.
B. The Domino Web server will ignore the request from the browser session.
C. The user will receive an error code defined by the administrator in this rule.
D. The HTTP task automatically appends “/*” to the pattern when it stores the rule in
itsinternal table.

Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 1
With which three kinds of product relations do Magento Catalog Target Rules deal? (Choose three)

A. The relations between a configurable product and its child products
B. The relations between a bundle product and its child products
C. The relations among products linked as cross-sell products
D. The relations between a product and its custom options
E. The relations among products linked as related products
F. The relations among products linked as upsell products

Answer: C,E,F

QUESTION NO: 2
When setData (‘ some’, ‘value’) is called on an EAV entity and the entity is saved to the database,

A. The ‘value’ of the attribute named ‘some’ is saved in the eav_values table
B. The ‘value’ of the attribute named ‘ some’ is saved in one of the entity’s tables depending on its datatype (for example, entityname_varchar)
C. The data will be stored in the EAV registry making ‘ some’ ‘value’ available to the entity
D. The ‘value’ of the attribute named T some’ is saved in the eav attribute values table

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
A custom frontend controller will extend which one of the following classes?

A. Mage_Core_Controller_Front_Action
B. Mage_Adminhtml_Controller_Action
C. Mage_Core_Controller_Varien_Front
D. Mage_Core_Controller_Abstract

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4
Which one of the following xpaths is correct for replacing
Mage_Customer_Model_Custom_Address via Mage::helper (‘customer/address’)?

A. Global/customer/helpers/address
B. Global/rewrite/helpers/rewrite/address
C. Global/helpers/customer/rewrite/address
D. Global/helpers/rewrite/customer_address
E. Global/helpers/rewrite/customer/address

Answer: C

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1Z0-521 Oracle EBS R12.1 Order Management Essentials our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which three statements are about freight carriers? (Choose three)

A. Freight carriers can be defined only in transportation.
B. Freight carriers are used for customer shipments.
C. Freight carriers are specific to inventory organization.
D. General ledger accounts can not be associated with freight to collect associated costs.
E. Inter organization transfer uses an associated general ledger account to specify the freight.
F. Freight carriers are used for shipments to and from customers, suppliers, and internal
organizations.

Answer: C,E,F

QUESTION NO: 2
The item sub inventory report output contains _______. (Choose three)

A. EOQ
B. Source type
C. Locator control
D. Focus forecast
E. Fixed Lot multiple
F. Min-max information

Answer: B,E,F

QUESTION NO: 3
A key business user requirement to those users should be able to create sales order with
distributor keys trokes.
Which four setup options facilitate reduced data entry? (Choose four)

A. Defaulting rules
B. Transaction types
C. OM: invoice source
D. Processing constraints
E. Automatic attachments rules
F. OM: invoice transaction type
G. OM: enable Related items and manual substitutions

Answer: A,B,E,G

QUESTION NO: 4
ACME has offices in various countries and its customers and supports are based around the globe.
Given that the addresses are formatted in each country, how would you setup the system to handle this situation?

A. Ser up the address as a context-sensitive key Flexfield.
B. Ser up the address as a free format segmented value set.
C. Ser up the address as a context-sensitive descriptive field
D. Ser up the address as a dependent value set country-specific segments.

Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
A contract cannot contain _____________.

A. Illegal activities
B. deadline for the completion of the work
C. Penalties and fines for disclosure of intellectual rights
D. Al1 of the above

Answer: A

Explanation:
A contract cannot contain illegal activities. A contract can contain other options available.

QUESTION NO: 2
Which one of the following comes first in the project plan?

A. Scope Statement
B. Quality Plan
C. WBS
D. Development Plan

Answer: A

Explanation:
Scope statement comes first in the project plan. Scope statement is the written statement of project. It contains: Project objectives, Project justification, Project deliverables

QUESTION NO: 3
You are project manager of a project. During the process of selecting the sellers, you reject one vendor because it doesn’t have the manufacturing capability. This is an example of which selection tool?

A. Weighting system
B. Screening system
C. Seller rating system
D. Expert judgment

Answer: B

Explanation:
A screening system rejects sellers that does not meet minimum requirements for the project.

QUESTION NO: 4
______________ provides details about how the project scope may be changed.

A. Control Scope system
B. VeiirV Scope
C. Scope Charter
D. Scope Management plan

Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which two statements are true about java EE shared libraries?

A. A shared library cannot be deployed to a cluster.
B. An application that is targeted to server1 can use a shared library that is targeted to server 2.
C. Multiple versions of the same shared library can be deployed and be active at the same time
D. A shared library is referenced through an application’s deployment descriptor.

Answer: C,D

Explanation: C: If more than one copy of myLibrary is registered, WebLogic Server selects the library with the highest specification version. If multiple copies of the library use the selected specification version, WebLogic Server selects the copy having the highest implementation version.
D: A Java EE application can reference a registered shared Java EE library using entries in the application’s weblogic-application.xml deployment descriptor.
Reference: Referencing Shared Java EE Libraries in an Enterprise Application

http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E12840_01/wls/docs103/programming/libraries.html

QUESTION NO: 2
Refer to the Exhibit.
You use the Start button in the administration console to start managed2 successfully. Which two statements must be true?

A. Managad2 is part of a cluster.
B. The Administration Server is running.
C. Managed2 has applications deployed to it.
D. The Node Manager for machine2 is configured and running.
E. The Node Manager for the Administration Server machine is configured and running.

Answer: B,D

Explanation: B: The administration server must be running.
Note: A WebLogic Server administration domain is a logically related group of WebLogic Server resources. Domains include a special WebLogic Server instance called the Administration Server, which is the central point from which you configure and manage all resources in the domain.
D:
Node Manager is a WebLogic Server utility that enables you to start, shut down, and restart Administration Server and Managed Server instances from a remote location. Although Node Manager is optional, it is recommended if your WebLogic Server environment hosts applications with high availability requirements.
A Node Manager process is not associated with a specific WebLogic domain but with a machine.
You can use the same Node Manager process to control server instances in any WebLogic Server domain, as long as the server instances reside on the same machine as the Node Manager process. Node Manager must run on each computer that hosts WebLogic Server instances — whether Administration Server or Managed Server — that you want to control with Node Manager.

QUESTION NO: 3
Within your data center, the Administration and Managed Servers utilize a shared, central storage device, which server’s access via NFS.
In this scenario, your application files no longer need to be copied to servers across the network.
Which server attribute allows you to override this behavior?

A. Startup Mode
B. Staging Mode
C. Root Directory
D. Listen Address

Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following is an indication of acceptable storage array performance?

A. High cache hit ratio
B. Low MTTF
C. Low buffer-to-buffer credits
D. High I/O wait

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
When setting up replication for application spanning multiple LUNs, which of the following
replication features should be utilized?

A. Clone
B. Snapshot
C. Semi-synchronous Replication
D. Consistency Group

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following is the difference between a Tape Library and a Tape Auto-loader?

A. A Tape Library supports a tape access door.
B. A Tape Library supports multiple tape drives.
C. A Tape Library supports a tape robot.
D. A Tape Library supports multiple tapes.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following requires a MINIMUM of three drives and can survive the loss of up to any two drives?

A. RAID 1
B. RAID 0+1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 6

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 5
An IP-based datacenter is adding SCSI tape and disk assets to be used by multiple servers.
Which of the following will need to be added?

A. Router
B. Bridge
C. GiGE switch
D. 10/100 switch

Answer: B

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HP0-Y43 Implementing HP Network Infrastructure Solutions Exam our products come with a 100% guarantee of success. We hold this claim because of the highly dedicated and expert team that we have and because of our past performance.

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QUESTION NO: 1
A customer requires an HP FlexCampus solution with a core that scales to 40/100G. Which HP switch fabric meets this need?

A. the 7500′s CLOS switch fabric
B. the 10500′s CLOS switch fabric
C. the 7500′s crossbar switch fabric
D. the 10500′s crossbar switch fabric

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2
What is the role of neighbor solicitation (NS) messages in the autoconfiguration of an IPv6
address?

A. An IPv6 node sends an NS message to inform a node undergoing autoconfiguration that it is already using a particular address.
B. An IPv6 node sends an NS message for its tentative address to determine whether another node is using it.
C. An IPv6 node sends an NS message for the global prefix to prompt other IPv6 nodes to
advertise the addresses that they are using on that prefix.
D. An IPv6 node sends an NS message to prompt an IPv6 router on the link to advertise the global prefixes associated with the link immediately.

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
Which switch is best suited to act at the edge of a medium to large HP FlexFabric solution?

A. 10500
B. 5500
C. 9500
D. 5830

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
How can a high density of ports and high throughput at the core of an HP FlexNetwork save customers money?

A. Intelligence is offloaded from the edge switches, enabling customers to save money on the most numerous switches in their solutions.
B. The customer can combine the data center and campus LAN core into a single entity, reducing power and cooling costs.
C. The customer no longer needs to deploy modular switches at the distribution level and the edge, deploying more cost-effective stackable switches instead.
D. The architecture can be simplified, eliminating expensive distribution devices and reducing power and cooling costs.

Answer: D

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QUESTION NO: 1
A storage administrator does not have enough storage to fill the demands of the DBA team, but knows that their demands will exceed their actual requirement.
Which type of volumes could the storage administrator provide them as a solution?

A. thin provisioned
B. snap reserve
C. FlexShare
D. traditional

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
Which statement is true about mixed mode qtrees?

A. A file with UNIX permissions cannot be updated with a Windows ACL.
B. A file can have both UNIX and Windows permissions.
C. A file permission is either UNIX or Windows.
D. Qtree security style is permanent once set.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
SnapManagerfor Oracle, SnapManager for SQL Server, and SnapManager for Exchange are all part of which NetApp Manageability Software suite?

A. Data Suite
B. Server Suite
C. Storage Suite
D. Application Suite

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
The NetApp DataFort platforms can encrypt data _____. (Choose three.)

A. to CIFS shares on a FAS Controller
B. toiSCSI LUNs on a FAS Controller
C. to aSnapMirror destination
D. to a virtual tape drive on aNearStore VTL
E. from an Open SystemsSnapVault client to NearStore on FAS
F. from an NDMP client toNearStore on FAS

Answer: A,B,D

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QUESTION NO: 1
You observe that a database performance has degraded over a period of time. While investigating the reason, you find that the size of the database buffer cache is not large enough to cache all the needed data blocks. Which advisory component would you refer to, in order to determine that required size of the database buffer cache?

A. Memory Advisor
B. Segment Advisor
C. SQL Tuning Advisor
D. SQL Access Advisor
E. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM)

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
Exhibit
In your production database, the total waits and the time waited for log file parallel write are significantly high. While investigating the reason, you find that there are three redo log groups with two members in each group, and all redo log members are places on a single physical disk. What action would you take to minimize the waits?

A. start the log writer slave processes
B. increase the number of redoes log files
C. increase the size of the redo log buffer
D. place the redo log files on the different disks
E. increase the number of log writer processes

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
One of the tablespaces is read-only in your database. The loss of all control files forced you to recreate the control file. Which operation do you need to perform after re-creating the control file and opening the database?

A. drop and re-create the read-onlytablespaces
B. rename the read-only data files to their correct file names
C. change thetablespace status from read/write to read-only
D. re-create the read-only tablespace because it is automatically removed

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 4
You have set some of the initialization parameters as:
DB_BLOCK_SIZE = 8KB
SGA_MAX_SIZE = 2GB
SGA_TARGET = 0
SHARED_POOL_SIZE = 120MB
DB_CACHE_SIZE = 896MB
STREAM_POOL_SIZE = 0
LARGE_POOL_SIZE = 110 MB
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

A. You cannot set a value for the DB_8K_CACHE_SIZE parameter.
B. If you increase the size of the large pool to 120 MB, then the memory allocated to the shared poll will be reduced to 110 MB.
C. If the value for SGA_TARGET is changed to 1 GB and SHARED_POOL_SIZE is set to 120 MB, then memory cannot be taken from the shared pool, even if the shared pool has free space available.
D. If an application attempts to allocate more than 120 MB from the shared pool and free space is available in the buffer pool, then the free space from the buffer pool is allocated to the shared pool.

Answer: A,C

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