Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter Oracle 1Z0-820 cert24

Exam dumps, software Testing engine Testcenter Oracle 1Z0-820 cert24
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QUESTION NO: 1
Identify the two security features incorporated in the Oracle Solaris 11 Cryptographic Framework.

A. Layer 5 IP address encryptions
B. Internet protocol security
C. Diffie-Kerberos coaxial key encryption
D. Signed cryptographic plugins (providers)
E. Kernel support for signed antivirus plugins

Answer: D,E

Explanation:
The framework enables providers of cryptographic services to have their services
used by many consumers in the Oracle Solaris operating system. Another name for providers is plugins. The framework allows three types of plugins:
* User-level plugins-Shared objects that provide services by using PKCS #11 libraries, such as pkcs11_softtoken.so.1.
* Kernel-level plugins-Kernel modules that provide implementations of cryptographic algorithms in software, such as AES.
Many of the algorithms in the framework are optimized for x86 with the SSE2 instruction set and for SPARC hardware.
* Hardware plugins-Device drivers and their associated hardware accelerators. The Niagara chips, the ncp and n2cp device drivers, are one example. A hardware accelerator offloads expensive cryptographic functions from the operating system. The Sun Crypto Accelerator 6000 board is one example.
Reference: Oracle Solaris Cryptographic Framework

http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E19963-01/html/821-1456/scf-10.html

QUESTION NO: 2
Review the ZFS dataset output that is displayed on your system:
Which four correctly describe the output?

A. /data/file4 has been added.
B. The link /data/file3 has been added.
C. /data/file3 has been renamed to /data/file13.
D. /data/file4 has been modified and is now larger.
E. /data/file1 has been deleted.
F. /data/file1 has been modified and is now smaller.
G. /data/file5 has been modified.
H. /data/file3 (a link) has been removed.

Answer: A,C,E,G

Explanation:
A: + Indicates the file/directory was added in the later dataset
C:R Indicates the file/directory was renamed in the later dataset
E: – Indicates the file/directory was removed in the later dataset
G: M Indicates the file/directory was modified in the later dataset
Note:Identifying ZFS Snapshot Differences (zfs diff)
You can determine ZFS snapshot differences by using the zfs diff command.
The following table summarizes the file or directory changes that are identified by the zfs diff command.
File or Directory Change Identifier
* File or directory is modified or file or directory link changed
M
* File or directory is present in the older snapshot but not in the newer snapshot

* File or directory is present in the newer snapshot but not in the older snapshot
+
* File or directory is renamed
R

QUESTION NO: 3
Which five statements describe options available for installing the Oracle Solaris 11operating system using the installation media?

A. You can perform a text or LiveCD installation locally or over the network.
B. The text Installer does not install the GNOME desktop. The GNOME desktop package must he added after you have installed the operating system.
C. The LiveCD Installation cannot be used to install multiple instances of Oracle Solaris.
D. The LiveCD installer cannot be used if you need to preserve a specific Solaris Volume Table of Contents (VTOC) slice in your current operating system.
E. The LiveCD Installer is for x86 platforms only.
F. The GUI installer cannot be used to upgrade your operating system from Solaris 10.
G. If you are installing Oracle Solaris 11 on an x86-based system that will have more than one operating system installed in it, you cannot partition your disk during the installation process.
H. The LiveCD installer can be used for SPARC or x86 platforms.

Answer: A,B,D,F

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QUESTION NO: 1
A customer wants to replicate a CIFS environment from a legacy EMC Celerra to a new EMCVNX. Users are able to access CIFS shares from both arrays. The CIFS shares are on different networks and replication is not running. The customer wants to make sure there will be no network restrictions preventing replication between the data movers on two different networks.
What TCP ports should they ask the network team to open?

A. 8888, 8887, 5081
B. 80, 443, 8080
C. 5057, 445, 5087
D. 23, 25, 22

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
A customer recently upgraded from vSphere v4.x to vSphere v5.0 to benefit from new VMFS-5 features for their existing ‘DataStore1’ and ‘DataStore2’ datastores on an EMC VNX. A second identically configured VNX was implemented and the customer created two additional datastores on the new VNX.
After monitoring the environment, the customer notices the VMs on ‘ DataStore1 ’ and ‘ DataStore2 ’ are not using the same sub-block structure as the two new datastores.
What is the reason for this behavior?

A. The old VMs are on an upgraded VMFS-5 datastore.
B. The old VMs are still running old VMware tools.
C. The new VMFS-5 features need to be licensed and activated.
D. The new VMFS-5 cannot support two VNX storage systems.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
A storage administrator reports they are unable configure SAN Copy connections between two VNX. The required cabling is in place and zoning is correct, but the SP connections still do not appear in Unisphere Manager. What could have caused this issue?

A. SAN Copy is not installed on both VNX arrays.
B. SAN Copy is only licensed for local copies.
C. The SP ports are already being used by hosts.
D. Both VNX arrays are not in the same domain.

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
A Pool used for FAST VP has the following configuration:
Flash drives: 1,000 GB, with 1,000 GB free
SAS drives: 5,000 GB, with 2,500 GB free
NL-SAS drives: 20,000 GB, with 11,500 GB free
The tiering policy is set to Auto. An additional 600 GB of new data is written to the Pool.
What is the data distribution after the data is written?

A. Flash drives: 960 GB free SAS drives: 2,400 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,040 GB free
B. Flash drives: 400 GB free SAS drives: 2,500 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,500 GB free
C. Flash drives: 900 GB free SAS drives: 2,000 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,500 GB free
D. Flash drives: 970 GB free SAS drives: 2,350 GB free NL-SAS drives: 11,080GB free

Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following is a public IP address?

A. 10.0.0.1
B. 62.10.1.1
C. 172.16.0.1
D. 192.168.1.1

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following ports MUST be open to connect to a PC using RDP?

A. 21
B. 80
C. 443
D. 3389

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following is the MAXIMUM transfer speed of USB 2.0?

A. 100 Mbps
B. 400 Mbps
C. 420 Mbps
D. 480 Mbps

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following display connections has 15-pins?

A. RGB
B. VGA
C. DVI
D. HDMI

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 5
Which of the following connector types is only used for Coaxial?

A. RJ-11
B. ST
C. F
D. RJ-45

Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
A user is having trouble connecting to the Internet. Which of the following commands should a technician use, from the user’s workstation, to ensure that the workstation has a valid IP address?

A. NETSTAT
B. PING
C. IPCONFIG
D. TRACERT

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following operating systems supports full BitLocker functionality?

A. Windows XP
B. Windows 7 Professional
C. Windows Vista Home
D. Windows 7 Enterprise

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which of the following protocols could a technician use to connect a smartphone to an email server? (Select TWO).

A. SMTP
B. POP3
C. HTTP
D. SNTP
E. ICMP

Answer: A,B

QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following should a technician do FIRST to secure a mobile device?

A. Assign a passcode
B. Download updates
C. Disable GPS
D. Install antivirus

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5
When running Windows XP, which of the following would give a list of switches for the CHKDSK command?

A. chkdsk ~?
B. chkdsk :?
C. chkdsk /?
D. chkdsk \?

Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
What is the default value for the RIP garbagetime setting?

A. 30 seconds
B. 60 seconds
C. 120 seconds
D. 180 seconds

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
Given router interfaces 10.0.0.1/24, 10.10.10.10/24, 192.168.0.1/24, and
192.168.255.254/24 on a Summit7i switch what will be the OSPF router ID given the
following command: config ospf routerid automatic?

A. 10.0.0.1/24
B. 10.10.10.10/24
C. 192.168.0.1/24
D. 192.168.255.254/24

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which command would you use to configure VLAN corporate with IP address
192.168.0.1/16?

A. config vlan corporate ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16
B. config ipaddress corporate vlan 192.168.0.1/16
C. config ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16 vlan corporate
D. config ipaddress 192.168.0.1/16 corporate vlan

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 4
VLAN aggregation allows multiple sub-VLANs to share a single IP subnet.

A. True
B. False

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 5
How do you disable Split Horizon?

A. disable rip splithorizon noadvertise
B. unconfig rip splithorizon
C. disable rip splithorizon
D. unconfig rip splithorizon noadvertise

Answer: C

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QUESTION NO: 1
What is the correct communication object type and attribute for creating an Enterprise Extender connection to another system?

A. A controller type *EE
B. A controller type *HPR
C. A virtual device type *EE
D. A virtual device type *HPR

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
A customer has a Power 520, serial number 10-12345. It is one of several systems managed by an HMC running Version 7 firmware at TCP/IP address 10.0.0.100. Which of the following describes how to produce a system plan for this system in file MYPLAN.sysplan?

A. Select system plans from left panel, then select Create System Plan.
In the pop-up window, fill in system plan name and description, click OK.
B. Select ‘Service Applications’ on the HMC and click the Create System Plan option.
In the pop-up window, click the line with 9406-520*1012345, and specify file MYPLAN in the file name prompt.
C. Launch SPT and click ‘Create New Plan.’
On the next panel, click the ‘Open an Existing System Plan.’
In the file prompt, specify https://10.0.0.100/sysplan.
After the system plan is loaded from the HMC, save to file MYPLAN.
D. Select ‘System Plans’ on the HMC, and then click the ‘Import…’ button.
On the pop-up window, click the line with 9406-520*1012345.
When the import completes, click the ‘Save…’ button and specify file MYPLAN in the file name prompt.

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
An administrator has been directed to create a new DNS server instance named ‘ABC’ on an IBM i 6.1 partition. Which of the following overviews correctly describe how to do this?

A. Open a browser to IBM Systems Director Navigator for IBMi on the partition.
Navigate to Network > Server > DNS.
Select the ‘create’ action and follow the prompts.
B. From a command line, run the CRTTCPDNS command to create the ABC instance definition.
Use SEU to edit QUSRSYS/QDNSTBL(ABC) to edit the DNS records for the instance.
C. In System i Navigator, under the system to host the DNS, navigate to Network > Servers > DNS.
Right-click on DNS, then select ‘New Name Server’.
Follow the prompts.
D. From a command line, use STRQSH to start the PASE command prompt
Run the script: crdns -n ABC.
Use the Edit File (EDTF) command on IFS file /QIBM/UserData/OS400/DNS/ABC.TBL to enter the new DNS records.

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
Which of the following recovery limit settings allows a communications line to make infinite
recovery attempts?

A. Recovery limit attempts (0), Time interval in minutes (1)
B. Recovery limit attempts (1), Time interval in minutes (0)
C. Recovery limit attempts (*NOMAX), Time interval in minutes (0)
D. Recovery limit attempts (0), Time interval in minutes (*NOMAX)

Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
What is the minimum number of servers for a distributed configuration?

A. One server; master server
B. Two servers; master and crawler servers
C. Three servers; master, crawler, and search servers
D. Four servers; master, crawler, document processor, and search servers

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 2
Which is NOT a supported operating system?

A. AIX 5.3 (32-bit)
B. AIX 6.1 (64-bit)
C. Red Hat Enterprise Linux Advanced Server (32-bit)
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Enterprise (32-bit)

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 3
When you map the common analysis structure to the index, what are you determining?

A. which users can invoke the REST API to find documents
B. which custom annotators will run in the document processing pipeline
C. the structure of the facet tree that will show up in the text miner application
D. which analysis results are indexed to enable search and text mining on them

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4
Which documents from the collection are used to create the clustering proposal?

A. All of the documents in the index are used.
B. A random sample of the number that you specify
C. The first 1000 documents that were added to the index.
D. A round-robin alphabetically ordered sampling from each different crawler

Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which of the following uses a proprietary SPIPE protocol to encapsulate unsecured HTTP traffic?

A. PA Agent
B. HIPS Agent
C. DLP Agent
D. McAfee Agent

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 2
Which of the following is a core architecture component of ePO?

A. Internet Explorer
B. Event Parser
C. Active Directory
D. Agent Handler

Answer: B

QUESTION NO: 3
What option can be configured in the On-Access General Policy that is not an option in the local VirusScan console?

A. Boot sectors
B. Floppy during shutdown
C. Enable on-access scanning at system startup
D. Enable on-access scanning when the policy is enforced

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 4

Which of the following system properties does the ePO server write to the database? Select the three that apply.

A. Total disk space
B. Total physical memory
C. Last communication
D. VirusScan version
E. McAfee agent version

Answer: A,B,C

QUESTION NO: 5
To ensure that a Rogue System Detection Sensor is not installed on a managed system, what action needs to be performed?

A. Add the system to the Exception List
B. Add the system to the Blacklist
C. Add the system as Ignored
D. Add the system as Managed

Answer: B

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QUESTION NO: 1
A small college is considering a cloud environment where the infrastructure is hosted by a thirdparty provider and shared with colleges and universities with similar research needs. All of the colleges and universities share the associated costs. Which type of a cloud delivery model does this scenario represent?

A. Community cloud
B. Private cloud
C. Public cloud
D. Hybrid cloud

Answer: A

QUESTION NO: 2
Which HP software offering or tool consists of optimized and tested templates for use with an HP CloudSystem to automate the deployment application in the cloud?

A. HP Cloud Content Delivery
B. HP CloudSystem Enterprise
C. HP Cloud Service Automation
D. HP Cloud Maps

Answer: D

QUESTION NO: 3
Which HP software enables multi-site Matrix OE recovery management for HP CloudSystem Matrix that uses the HP P6000 EVA storage solution?

A. HP Navigator
B. HP data Protector
C. HP ServiceGuard
D. HP Continuous Access
E. HP Business Copy

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 4
What is the purpose of HP SiteScope within the HP CloudSystem Matrix Solution?

A. Provision application
B. Monitor availability and performance
C. Secure the environment
D. Provision infrastructure

Answer: A

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QUESTION NO: 1
Which area of the network is considered the backbone?

A. data center
B. core
C. distribution layer
D. LAN access layer

Answer: B

Explanation:
The core is the backbone of the network, a central or common point where traffic flows between users, their workgroups, and shared resources. Most inter-workgroup traffic flows through the core, so it is important that networking devices located in the core introduce little or no delay (latency). Core switches are usually wirespeed , highly available devices.

QUESTION NO: 2
Which device forwards network traffic based only on Layer 2 information?

A. router
B. switch
C. hub
D. firewall

Answer: C

QUESTION NO: 3
Which switch is specifically designed for networks that require basic connectivity and have little or no IT support?

A. fixed-port switch
B. light Layer 3 switch
C. modular switch
D. unmanaged switch

Answer: D

Explanation:
Unmanaged switch-A switch that enables Ethernet devices to communicate but does not have a management interface. You simply connect the switch to other devices, and the network is operational. Unmanaged switches are intended for networks that require basic connectivity and have little or no IT support. They are cost-effective and offer intuitive and simple configuration.

QUESTION NO: 4
Which HP A Series switches provide Layer 2 functionality and a Web browser interface but no CLI?

A. HP A5800 Series switches
B. HP NJ2000GIntelliJack switches
C. HP A3600-E1 Series switches
D. HP A3100 Series switches

Answer: B

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